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Software Engineering

Software Engineering

Introduction

Study processes and practices for analysing, designing, testing and maintaining dependable software.

Topic-Wise Overview

Software Processes

Software engineering principles, lifecycle models and agile development

Requirements

Functional and nonfunctional requirements and requirements engineering

Software Models

Context, interaction, structural and behavioural models

Design

Software architecture, UML and design patterns

Quality and Maintenance

Testing, quality assurance, evolution, project planning and configuration management

Study Guidance

Study the complete collection of 200 Software Engineering MCQs below, arranged in four sets of 50. Every question includes four options, the correct answer and an explanation. Topics cover development processes, requirements, agile methods, software architecture, UML, testing, DevOps, maintenance, software security, quality and project management. Additional short questions and worked examples are planned.

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Software Engineering MCQs — Set 1 (Questions 1–50)

Choose an answer, then reveal the correct option and explanation.

Question 1. Software engineering is chiefly concerned with

  1. Systematic software development and maintenance
  2. Only hardware manufacture
  3. Only typing code
  4. Only buying licenses
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Systematic software development and maintenance

It covers requirements, design, construction, testing and evolution.

Question 2. A functional requirement specifies

  1. The processor clock speed only
  2. Behavior a system must provide
  3. A developer salary
  4. The screen color alone
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Behavior a system must provide

Functional requirements describe services and system functions.

Question 3. A nonfunctional requirement often specifies

  1. Only a named button
  2. A particular loop counter
  3. A quality such as security or performance
  4. A user ID
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. A quality such as security or performance

Nonfunctional requirements express qualities and constraints.

Question 4. Availability measures

  1. Number of source files
  2. Only code length
  3. Database row count
  4. Whether a service is ready when needed
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Whether a service is ready when needed

Availability concerns readiness for use.

Question 5. Maintainability refers to

  1. Ease of modifying software
  2. Maximum network bandwidth
  3. A compiler version
  4. Only system uptime
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Ease of modifying software

Maintainability relates to the effort to change software.

Question 6. Reliability concerns

  1. Only appearance
  2. Correct operation over time under stated conditions
  3. Number of meetings
  4. Project team size
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Correct operation over time under stated conditions

Reliability addresses continuity of correct service.

Question 7. Requirements elicitation seeks

  1. Only executable machine code
  2. A complete production server
  3. Stakeholder needs and constraints
  4. An index file
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Stakeholder needs and constraints

Elicitation gathers information about desired functionality.

Question 8. An interview can be used to

  1. Compile Java code
  2. Replace integration testing
  3. Create disk partitions
  4. Discover requirements from stakeholders
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Discover requirements from stakeholders

Interviews uncover goals and workflows.

Question 9. A use case describes

  1. Actor interactions to achieve a goal
  2. A CPU scheduling policy
  3. An encryption key
  4. A filesystem journal
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Actor interactions to achieve a goal

Use cases show externally visible system behavior.

Question 10. A use-case actor represents

  1. Only the lead developer
  2. An external role interacting with a system
  3. A source file
  4. A database index
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. An external role interacting with a system

Actors may be users or other systems.

Question 11. A user story expresses

  1. Only a UML class hierarchy
  2. A compiler optimization
  3. A user need and its value
  4. A data-link packet
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. A user need and its value

Stories help convey a requirement in user-oriented language.

Question 12. Acceptance criteria define

  1. Only code formatting rules
  2. Processor frequencies
  3. Employee job titles
  4. Conditions that indicate a requirement is satisfied
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Conditions that indicate a requirement is satisfied

Criteria make expected outcomes testable.

Question 13. A traceability matrix links

  1. Requirements to designs and tests
  2. Routers to MAC addresses
  3. Passwords to keyboard keys
  4. Only finished code to salaries
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Requirements to designs and tests

Traceability supports impact and coverage analysis.

Question 14. Requirements validation asks whether

  1. Every module compiles
  2. The requirements reflect actual stakeholder needs
  3. The server is running
  4. A file is encrypted
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. The requirements reflect actual stakeholder needs

Validation checks that the intended problem is correctly represented.

Question 15. Requirements verification examines

  1. Whether a product is popular
  2. A hard drive checksum only
  3. Conformance of specifications to stated rules and standards
  4. Code execution exclusively
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Conformance of specifications to stated rules and standards

Verification checks specification quality and consistency.

Question 16. A requirements baseline is

  1. A temporary cache
  2. A CPU register
  3. A user interface color
  4. An approved reference version
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. An approved reference version

Baselines help control proposed changes.

Question 17. Scope creep is

  1. Uncontrolled growth of project scope
  2. A scheduled design review
  3. A legitimate approved scope change automatically
  4. Unit testing
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Uncontrolled growth of project scope

Unmanaged extra features can impact schedule and cost.

Question 18. A project constraint is

  1. Every optional feature
  2. A limitation on possible solutions
  3. A source code comment
  4. Only a deliverable name
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. A limitation on possible solutions

Time and budget are examples of constraints.

Question 19. SDLC abbreviates

  1. System Data Link Control
  2. Software Design Library Compiler
  3. Software Development Life Cycle
  4. Static Data Logic Code
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Software Development Life Cycle

SDLC describes activities from conception through maintenance.

Question 20. The waterfall approach is typically

  1. Based on continuous deployment only
  2. Defined by no documentation
  3. A random coding process
  4. Sequential and phase-oriented
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Sequential and phase-oriented

Waterfall emphasizes staged development.

Question 21. A limitation of rigid waterfall is

  1. Late response to changed requirements
  2. Continuous early user feedback by definition
  3. Absence of any planning
  4. No phase transitions
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Late response to changed requirements

Late changes can become expensive.

Question 22. The V-model links development to

  1. Only web pages
  2. Related verification and validation activities
  3. Database indexes
  4. Cloud region selection
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Related verification and validation activities

Each development stage has corresponding test concerns.

Question 23. The spiral model emphasizes

  1. Exactly one test cycle
  2. Only database normalization
  3. Iterative development driven by risk
  4. No stakeholder participation
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Iterative development driven by risk

Spiral cycles involve risk assessment and refinement.

Question 24. Incremental development delivers

  1. All features in one unreviewed release
  2. Only documentation
  3. No working software
  4. Functionality in successive usable portions
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Functionality in successive usable portions

Successive increments add capabilities.

Question 25. Iterative development means

  1. Repeatedly refining a solution
  2. Never revisiting decisions
  3. One coding attempt
  4. Avoiding user feedback
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Repeatedly refining a solution

Iterations improve work products based on evidence.

Question 26. A prototype is often used to

  1. Guarantee a bug-free release
  2. Explore design or requirements uncertainty
  3. Avoid every review
  4. Replace production security
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Explore design or requirements uncertainty

Prototypes help reveal assumptions early.

Question 27. A throwaway prototype is

  1. Always deployed directly
  2. A permanent backup
  3. Discarded after its exploratory purpose
  4. A source-control branch name
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Discarded after its exploratory purpose

Throwaway prototypes support learning rather than production reuse.

Question 28. An evolutionary prototype is

  1. Always discarded immediately
  2. A static slide
  3. A test log only
  4. Improved progressively into a fuller solution
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Improved progressively into a fuller solution

Evolutionary prototyping develops the model further.

Question 29. Agile approaches emphasize

  1. Collaboration and adapting through frequent feedback
  2. No planning whatsoever
  3. Never testing
  4. Only a fixed technology
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Collaboration and adapting through frequent feedback

Agile teams respond to change while delivering value.

Question 30. Scrum is

  1. A database engine
  2. A framework for developing complex products
  3. A compiler
  4. A UML diagram
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. A framework for developing complex products

Scrum structures empirical product work.

Question 31. Scrum Product Owner is accountable for

  1. Network configuration only
  2. Executing all tests personally
  3. Maximizing product value
  4. Hardware purchases only
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Maximizing product value

The Product Owner manages value and the Product Backlog.

Question 32. Scrum Master is accountable for

  1. Signing every customer contract
  2. Programming every feature
  3. Acting as sole tester
  4. Establishing Scrum effectiveness
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Establishing Scrum effectiveness

The Scrum Master helps Scrum be understood and applied.

Question 33. A Scrum Sprint lasts

  1. One month or less
  2. Exactly six months
  3. Always one hour
  4. An unlimited duration
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. One month or less

Sprints are fixed-length events no longer than a month.

Question 34. A Product Backlog is

  1. Only completed defects
  2. An evolving ordered list of product work
  3. A physical disk
  4. A private spreadsheet of salaries
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. An evolving ordered list of product work

It captures what is needed to improve the product.

Question 35. A Sprint Backlog includes

  1. Only customer invoices
  2. Only past releases
  3. Sprint Goal, selected work and a delivery plan
  4. Only network diagrams
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Sprint Goal, selected work and a delivery plan

Developers adapt this plan during the Sprint.

Question 36. A Scrum Increment is

  1. A random code file
  2. Only an estimate
  3. Only a meeting
  4. A usable addition to product value
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. A usable addition to product value

An Increment must meet the Definition of Done.

Question 37. Definition of Done specifies

  1. Quality conditions for an Increment to count as complete
  2. Only the Sprint start date
  3. An individual’s lunch time
  4. Only issue priority
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Quality conditions for an Increment to count as complete

It creates a shared understanding of completion.

Question 38. Daily Scrum focuses on

  1. Annual budgeting
  2. Inspecting progress toward the Sprint Goal and adapting the plan
  3. Rewriting project contracts
  4. System administration only
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Inspecting progress toward the Sprint Goal and adapting the plan

Developers assess and plan their next actions.

Question 39. Sprint Review focuses on

  1. Only personal performance ratings
  2. Code compilation only
  3. Inspecting results and adapting future work with stakeholders
  4. Hardware calibration
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Inspecting results and adapting future work with stakeholders

Review feedback informs the Product Backlog.

Question 40. Sprint Retrospective focuses on

  1. Renewing the domain
  2. Assigning IP addresses
  3. A database transaction
  4. Improving the team’s effectiveness
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Improving the team’s effectiveness

The team examines methods and identifies improvements.

Question 41. Kanban commonly emphasizes

  1. Visualizing and improving work flow
  2. Only mandatory fixed-length Sprints
  3. No flow limits
  4. No measurement
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Visualizing and improving work flow

Kanban uses visual workflows and managing work in progress.

Question 42. WIP in Kanban means

  1. Web Interface Protocol
  2. Work in Progress
  3. Write Integration Package
  4. Weighted Iteration Plan
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Work in Progress

WIP counts work started but not finished.

Question 43. Limiting WIP often helps

  1. Eliminate all collaboration
  2. Guarantee no defects
  3. Reduce multitasking and expose bottlenecks
  4. Double every project delay
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Reduce multitasking and expose bottlenecks

WIP limits can improve flow and finishing rate.

Question 44. Cycle time measures

  1. Only the time spent waiting to begin
  2. The total annual budget
  3. Time to reboot a server
  4. Elapsed time from starting an item until completion
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Elapsed time from starting an item until completion

Cycle time tracks the duration of work in progress until completion.

Question 45. Lead time measures

  1. Elapsed time from a request to delivery
  2. Only active coding minutes
  3. Only database latency
  4. Only compilation time
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Elapsed time from a request to delivery

Lead time includes waiting and processing from request to delivery.

Question 46. A burndown chart shows

  1. Developer salaries
  2. Remaining work over time
  3. Network packet loss
  4. Database disk usage
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Remaining work over time

Burndown visualizes unfinished work against time.

Question 47. A project milestone is

  1. Always a deliverable requiring code
  2. A mandatory programming language
  3. A significant checkpoint or event
  4. An automatic test
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. A significant checkpoint or event

Milestones mark important points in a schedule.

Question 48. A project risk is

  1. A guaranteed defect
  2. Any completed task
  3. A known expense only
  4. An uncertain event or condition affecting objectives
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. An uncertain event or condition affecting objectives

Risks combine uncertainty with potential impact.

Question 49. A risk register records

  1. Identified risks and related assessment or responses
  2. Only developer addresses
  3. Only test cases
  4. Only compiled files
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Identified risks and related assessment or responses

A register supports risk management and tracking.

Question 50. The critical path in project scheduling is

  1. The cheapest feature
  2. A sequence of activities determining the minimum project duration under the model
  3. The team’s main Git branch
  4. A test assertion
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. A sequence of activities determining the minimum project duration under the model

Delays on critical-path tasks can affect completion time.

Software Engineering MCQs — Set 2 (Questions 51–100)

Choose an answer and reveal the correct option and explanation.

Question 51. Architecture describes

  1. Only variable names
  2. Only user manuals
  3. System structure and component relationships
  4. Only deployment dates
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. System structure and component relationships

Architecture defines high-level design.

Question 52. Layered architecture uses

  1. One global function
  2. Only database tables
  3. Unconnected components
  4. Layers with distinct responsibilities
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Layers with distinct responsibilities

Layering separates concerns.

Question 53. Client-server architecture separates

  1. Service requesters and providers
  2. Testers from developers
  3. Only physical CPUs
  4. Source code from licenses
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Service requesters and providers

Clients request services from servers.

Question 54. Microservices emphasize

  1. One mandatory executable
  2. Independently deployable services
  3. No network calls
  4. No data storage
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Independently deployable services

Services can be deployed separately.

Question 55. A monolith is typically

  1. Always one source file
  2. Never modular internally
  3. Deployed as one primary application unit
  4. Always a distributed system
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Deployed as one primary application unit

Monoliths can be internally modular.

Question 56. High cohesion means

  1. Many unrelated tasks per module
  2. Many database servers
  3. Many network connections
  4. Closely related responsibilities within a module
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Closely related responsibilities within a module

Related responsibilities belong together.

Question 57. Low coupling means

  1. Limited unnecessary dependence between modules
  2. No interfaces
  3. No modules
  4. More hidden dependencies
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Limited unnecessary dependence between modules

Reducing coupling supports change.

Question 58. Single Responsibility Principle promotes

  1. One class in a whole system
  2. One coherent reason to change a module
  3. One programmer per feature
  4. One function per project
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. One coherent reason to change a module

Responsibilities should remain coherent.

Question 59. Information hiding means

  1. Hiding source code from all teammates
  2. No user documentation
  3. Concealing implementation details behind interfaces
  4. No version control
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Concealing implementation details behind interfaces

Stable interfaces shield internal decisions.

Question 60. An API contract defines

  1. Only internal whitespace
  2. Only compiler flags
  3. Only server hardware
  4. Permitted interactions and behavior
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Permitted interactions and behavior

Contracts specify requests and responses.

Question 61. Dependency inversion encourages

  1. High-level logic depending on abstractions
  2. All modules depending on one concrete class
  3. No testing
  4. No interfaces
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. High-level logic depending on abstractions

Abstractions reduce direct implementation dependencies.

Question 62. Open-Closed Principle suggests

  1. Never adding new behavior
  2. Extending behavior without altering stable modules where feasible
  3. Never using interfaces
  4. Editing every existing class
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Extending behavior without altering stable modules where feasible

Extension points can reduce fragile modifications.

Question 63. Liskov Substitution Principle concerns

  1. Only using inheritance syntax
  2. Renaming methods
  3. Subtypes preserving base-type expectations
  4. Replacing all interfaces
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Subtypes preserving base-type expectations

Clients should work with valid subtypes.

Question 64. Interface Segregation Principle favors

  1. One huge interface for all clients
  2. Only abstract classes
  3. No composition
  4. Small focused interfaces
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Small focused interfaces

Clients should depend only on needed methods.

Question 65. Design patterns provide

  1. Reusable solution structures for recurring problems
  2. Exact source code for every project
  3. Automatic proofs of correctness
  4. Physical wiring templates
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Reusable solution structures for recurring problems

Patterns communicate common design approaches.

Question 66. Singleton pattern intends

  1. Many uncontrolled instances
  2. Controlled single instance and access
  3. Stateless RPC only
  4. Automatic dependency removal
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Controlled single instance and access

Singleton restricts instance creation.

Question 67. Factory Method supports

  1. Disk allocation
  2. Automated testing only
  3. Delegated or abstracted object creation
  4. Thread scheduling
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Delegated or abstracted object creation

Creation choices can be delegated.

Question 68. Observer pattern provides

  1. Database indexing
  2. Thread isolation only
  3. Physical network routing
  4. Notifications to registered dependents
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Notifications to registered dependents

Observers react to subject changes.

Question 69. Strategy pattern provides

  1. Interchangeable algorithms behind an interface
  2. One hardcoded algorithm forever
  3. Only inheritance
  4. A database query plan
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Interchangeable algorithms behind an interface

Strategies can be swapped.

Question 70. Adapter pattern provides

  1. Automatic memory freeing
  2. Compatibility between differing interfaces
  3. Encryption only
  4. Object persistence
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Compatibility between differing interfaces

Adapters translate interfaces.

Question 71. UML means

  1. Universal Memory Language
  2. User Management Logic
  3. Unified Modeling Language
  4. Uniform Module Library
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Unified Modeling Language

UML is a visual modeling notation.

Question 72. Class diagram represents

  1. Time-ordered message exchange
  2. Live memory values only
  3. Deployment timestamps
  4. Classes and structural relationships
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Classes and structural relationships

Class diagrams model static structure.

Question 73. Sequence diagram shows

  1. Messages ordered across interacting participants
  2. Only class attributes
  3. Disk usage
  4. Employee assignments
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Messages ordered across interacting participants

Sequence diagrams model interactions over time.

Question 74. Activity diagram represents

  1. Only class inheritance
  2. Workflow and control flow
  3. CPU temperature
  4. Only package names
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Workflow and control flow

Activity diagrams show process steps and decisions.

Question 75. State machine diagram represents

  1. Only data tables
  2. Only source changes
  3. States and event-driven transitions
  4. Only project costs
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. States and event-driven transitions

State machines model lifecycle behavior.

Question 76. UML association denotes

  1. Compilation stage
  2. Testing method
  3. A networking port
  4. Structural relationship between classes
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Structural relationship between classes

Associations connect modeled entities.

Question 77. Composition denotes

  1. Strong whole-part ownership
  2. Independent unrelated components
  3. Only interfaces
  4. Multiple CPU cores
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Strong whole-part ownership

Composition ties part ownership to a whole.

Question 78. Generalization means

  1. A has-a relationship only
  2. An is-a specialization relationship
  3. A physical network link
  4. A test case
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. An is-a specialization relationship

Subtypes specialize more general classifiers.

Question 79. Use-case diagram displays

  1. Class fields only
  2. CPU scheduling
  3. Actors and system goals
  4. Database indexes
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Actors and system goals

Use cases show external interactions.

Question 80. Component diagram focuses on

  1. Only user requirements as prose
  2. Internet routes
  3. Disk sectors
  4. Software modules and interfaces
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Software modules and interfaces

Components represent modular units.

Question 81. Deployment diagram represents

  1. Software mapped to execution nodes
  2. Only class inheritance
  3. Only data types
  4. Only business rules
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Software mapped to execution nodes

Deployment models runtime allocation.

Question 82. Refactoring aims to

  1. Add arbitrary requirements
  2. Improve structure while preserving external behavior
  3. Change all public APIs deliberately
  4. Remove all tests
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Improve structure while preserving external behavior

Refactoring changes internal design safely.

Question 83. A code smell signals

  1. Guaranteed security exploit
  2. Always a compiler failure
  3. Possible maintainability concern
  4. Guaranteed poor performance
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Possible maintainability concern

Smells prompt investigation.

Question 84. Technical debt represents

  1. Only unpaid vendor bills
  2. An unavoidable licensing fee
  3. Only network latency
  4. Future costs from expedient choices
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Future costs from expedient choices

Shortcuts may increase later rework.

Question 85. Code review examines

  1. Changes for quality and defects
  2. Only employee hours
  3. Only release dates
  4. Only server cost
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Changes for quality and defects

Reviews can identify issues and share context.

Question 86. Static analysis examines

  1. Only running programs
  2. Code without normal program execution
  3. Only interviews
  4. Only hardware behavior
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Code without normal program execution

Static tools inspect software artifacts.

Question 87. Dynamic analysis studies

  1. Only source text without running
  2. Only UML diagrams
  3. Behavior during execution
  4. Only documentation
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Behavior during execution

Dynamic methods observe runtime behavior.

Question 88. Unit testing checks

  1. The entire organization
  2. All systems at once necessarily
  3. Only hardware
  4. Small units of functionality
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Small units of functionality

Unit tests isolate small behaviors.

Question 89. Integration testing checks

  1. Interactions between combined components
  2. Only individual statement syntax
  3. Only employee policies
  4. Only documentation
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Interactions between combined components

Interfaces may fail when units combine.

Question 90. System testing checks

  1. Only a single method
  2. Complete integrated-system behavior
  3. Only version-control history
  4. Only hardware procurement
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Complete integrated-system behavior

System tests assess end-to-end behavior.

Question 91. Acceptance testing checks

  1. Only whether code compiles
  2. Only code style
  3. Whether agreed business needs are met
  4. Only database size
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Whether agreed business needs are met

Acceptance tests verify stakeholder expectations.

Question 92. Regression testing checks

  1. Only latest features
  2. Only memory leaks
  3. Only backups
  4. Whether changes break existing behavior
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Whether changes break existing behavior

Regression tests protect previously working behavior.

Question 93. Smoke testing is

  1. A quick basic build-health check
  2. An exhaustive formal proof
  3. Only load testing
  4. Only accessibility testing
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. A quick basic build-health check

Smoke tests catch broad failures early.

Question 94. Black-box testing considers

  1. Only internal branches
  2. Externally observable behavior
  3. Only source code structure
  4. Only database schema
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Externally observable behavior

Black-box testing uses specifications and outcomes.

Question 95. White-box testing considers

  1. Only user interviews
  2. Only product marketing
  3. Internal logic and structure
  4. Only server ownership
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Internal logic and structure

White-box tests use implementation knowledge.

Question 96. Boundary value analysis selects

  1. Only median values
  2. Only random inputs
  3. Only filenames
  4. Inputs near range limits
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Inputs near range limits

Boundary cases often expose faults.

Question 97. Equivalence partitioning groups

  1. Inputs expected to behave similarly
  2. All classes into one file
  3. All servers into one rack
  4. All employees by title
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Inputs expected to behave similarly

Representative values cover input classes.

Question 98. A test oracle gives

  1. A Git branch
  2. A basis for judging expected correctness
  3. A network port
  4. A screen layout
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. A basis for judging expected correctness

Oracles compare observed and expected outcomes.

Question 99. Defect reports should include

  1. Only a ticket number
  2. Only a priority label
  3. Reproduction steps and expected versus actual behavior
  4. Only the developer name
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Reproduction steps and expected versus actual behavior

Specific context helps reproduce defects.

Question 100. Test coverage indicates

  1. That all bugs are absent
  2. That all requirements are correct
  3. That code never changes
  4. Which parts or behaviors a test suite exercises
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Which parts or behaviors a test suite exercises

Coverage is useful but does not prove correctness.

Software Engineering MCQs — Set 3 (Questions 101–150)

Choose an option and reveal the correct answer with explanation.

Question 101. What is performance testing?

  1. Evaluating responsiveness and resource behavior under workloads
  2. Checking spelling in documentation
  3. Only reviewing UML diagrams
  4. Verifying employee schedules
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Evaluating responsiveness and resource behavior under workloads

Performance tests measure speed, capacity, and stability.

Question 102. Load testing evaluates

  1. Only a single unit’s syntax
  2. Behavior under expected workload levels
  3. Legal contracts
  4. Password length only
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Behavior under expected workload levels

Load tests exercise realistic expected demand.

Question 103. Stress testing evaluates

  1. Only source formatting
  2. Only UI color contrast
  3. Behavior beyond normal operating capacity
  4. Database keys
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Behavior beyond normal operating capacity

Stress tests reveal limits and failure behavior.

Question 104. Soak testing examines

  1. Only initial startup time
  2. A program’s license text
  3. A single input boundary
  4. Stability under sustained load over a long duration
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Stability under sustained load over a long duration

Long-running tests can expose leaks or resource exhaustion.

Question 105. Scalability refers to

  1. Ability to handle growing demand through added resources or design
  2. Only the number of source files
  3. The requirement to use one server
  4. The number of test cases
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Ability to handle growing demand through added resources or design

Scalability evaluates growth in capacity.

Question 106. Accessibility testing checks

  1. Only processor temperature
  2. Whether people with disabilities can use the product
  3. Only repository naming
  4. Memory allocation alone
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Whether people with disabilities can use the product

Accessibility tests evaluate usability with diverse needs and assistive technologies.

Question 107. Usability testing seeks to

  1. Only find buffer overflows
  2. Prove no defects exist
  3. Understand how effectively and comfortably users accomplish tasks
  4. Create a database index
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Understand how effectively and comfortably users accomplish tasks

Observing users reveals interface issues.

Question 108. Compatibility testing examines

  1. Only software popularity
  2. Only developer skill
  3. The number of requirements
  4. Operation across supported platforms and environments
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Operation across supported platforms and environments

Differences among browsers, devices, and systems can expose faults.

Question 109. Security testing aims to

  1. Find vulnerabilities and weaknesses in security controls
  2. Guarantee perfect future security
  3. Only maximize throughput
  4. Remove all permissions
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Find vulnerabilities and weaknesses in security controls

Security assessment evaluates threats and defenses.

Question 110. Penetration testing involves

  1. Deploying without approval
  2. Authorized attempts to exploit vulnerabilities
  3. Only formatting code
  4. An ordinary status meeting
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Authorized attempts to exploit vulnerabilities

Penetration testers use controlled attacks to assess exposure.

Question 111. Fuzz testing supplies

  1. Only expected happy-path inputs
  2. Only visual diagrams
  3. Large sets of varied or malformed inputs to find failures
  4. Exactly one fixed test case
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Large sets of varied or malformed inputs to find failures

Fuzzers explore unexpected input handling.

Question 112. Mutation testing measures

  1. The number of database migrations
  2. User satisfaction directly
  3. Network traffic alone
  4. Whether tests detect deliberately introduced program changes
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Whether tests detect deliberately introduced program changes

Mutation testing evaluates the fault-detection strength of tests.

Question 113. A surviving mutant may suggest

  1. A gap in tests or an equivalent mutation
  2. Guaranteed correctness
  3. That the compiler failed
  4. That every test is redundant
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. A gap in tests or an equivalent mutation

Surviving mutants require interpretation and potential test improvement.

Question 114. Statement coverage measures

  1. Every possible input combination
  2. The proportion of executable statements exercised
  3. The number of requirements met
  4. Only business value
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. The proportion of executable statements exercised

Statement coverage is a structural coverage metric.

Question 115. Branch coverage measures

  1. Only how many files were created
  2. Database transaction duration
  3. Whether each relevant decision outcome was exercised
  4. All performance bottlenecks
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Whether each relevant decision outcome was exercised

Branch coverage tracks decision alternatives.

Question 116. Does 100 percent statement coverage guarantee no defects?

  1. Yes
  2. Only for compiled languages
  3. Only with one test
  4. No
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. No

Coverage does not prove complete correctness.

Question 117. What is test-driven development (TDD)?

  1. Writing a failing test before implementing behavior and then refactoring
  2. Testing only after release
  3. Skipping design discussions entirely
  4. Deploying every commit to production automatically
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Writing a failing test before implementing behavior and then refactoring

TDD commonly follows red, green, refactor cycles.

Question 118. What is a mock object?

  1. A deployed live database
  2. A controlled substitute used in tests to simulate a dependency
  3. A project risk category
  4. A build artifact checksum
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. A controlled substitute used in tests to simulate a dependency

Mocks allow isolation and verification of interactions.

Question 119. What is a test fixture?

  1. Only a graphical theme
  2. A completed product release
  3. Setup data and environment needed for a repeatable test
  4. A CPU pin assignment
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Setup data and environment needed for a repeatable test

Fixtures establish consistent test conditions.

Question 120. A flaky test is one that

  1. Always fails for one reproducible bug
  2. Has no assertions by definition
  3. Runs faster than others
  4. Sometimes passes or fails without a relevant code change
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Sometimes passes or fails without a relevant code change

Flakiness undermines confidence in automated results.

Question 121. What is continuous integration (CI)?

  1. Frequent integration of changes with automated validation
  2. Only an annual software release
  3. No version control
  4. A networking protocol
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Frequent integration of changes with automated validation

CI catches integration problems through repeatable builds and tests.

Question 122. What is continuous delivery?

  1. Automatically releasing every code change without approval necessarily
  2. Keeping software in a releasable state through automated processes
  3. Never testing deployment
  4. Only manual compilation
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Keeping software in a releasable state through automated processes

Continuous delivery supports repeatable on-demand releases.

Question 123. Continuous deployment differs from continuous delivery because it

  1. Never uses automated tests
  2. Forbids rollback
  3. Automatically releases qualifying changes to production
  4. Requires only one developer
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Automatically releases qualifying changes to production

Continuous deployment automates production release after pipeline checks.

Question 124. A build pipeline normally

  1. Only manages employee leave
  2. Only stores user passwords
  3. Replaces all requirements
  4. Runs defined steps to compile, test, and package software
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Runs defined steps to compile, test, and package software

Pipelines standardize repeatable delivery tasks.

Question 125. A build artifact is

  1. An output produced by the build process
  2. Only a customer complaint
  3. A physical network port
  4. A Scrum role
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. An output produced by the build process

Compiled packages and container images are examples.

Question 126. Dependency management concerns

  1. Only allocating programmer shifts
  2. Tracking and resolving libraries or components used by software
  3. Only setting screen contrast
  4. Deleting source history
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Tracking and resolving libraries or components used by software

Dependencies need compatible versions and oversight.

Question 127. A lockfile in a package ecosystem helps

  1. Encrypt every source file
  2. Remove all vulnerabilities
  3. Record resolved dependency versions for reproducibility
  4. Eliminate code reviews
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Record resolved dependency versions for reproducibility

Lockfiles stabilize dependency resolution across environments.

Question 128. Semantic versioning commonly uses

  1. Only date and time
  2. Only a branch name
  3. One integer for all changes
  4. Major, minor, and patch version numbers
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Major, minor, and patch version numbers

SemVer describes compatibility expectations using three components.

Question 129. Under semantic versioning, a breaking public API change normally increments

  1. Major version
  2. Patch version only
  3. Build metadata only
  4. Minor version only
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Major version

Incompatible API changes require a major release under SemVer rules.

Question 130. What does a patch release normally represent in SemVer?

  1. Breaking API changes
  2. Backward-compatible bug fixes
  3. Entirely new major architecture
  4. Mandatory database replacement
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Backward-compatible bug fixes

Patch changes maintain public API compatibility.

Question 131. What is source control?

  1. A compiler optimization
  2. A storage encryption mode
  3. Recording and managing changes to source artifacts over time
  4. A UI design pattern
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Recording and managing changes to source artifacts over time

Version control enables history and collaboration.

Question 132. What does a Git commit record?

  1. Only a network packet
  2. A system clock adjustment
  3. A new database schema necessarily
  4. A snapshot of tracked changes with metadata
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. A snapshot of tracked changes with metadata

Commits preserve project history states.

Question 133. What is a Git branch?

  1. A movable reference to a line of development
  2. A CPU execution thread
  3. A filesystem mount
  4. A test fixture
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. A movable reference to a line of development

Branches allow independent sequences of commits.

Question 134. A merge conflict occurs when

  1. Two developers have the same job title
  2. Changes cannot be combined automatically without resolution
  3. A CI build succeeds
  4. A unit test passes
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Changes cannot be combined automatically without resolution

Conflicting edits require human or tool-assisted reconciliation.

Question 135. A pull request commonly supports

  1. Allocating RAM to processes
  2. Registering a domain
  3. Reviewing proposed changes before integration
  4. Only deploying to production directly
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Reviewing proposed changes before integration

Pull requests organize review and merge discussions.

Question 136. What is a release tag in Git?

  1. A network firewall rule
  2. An SQL primary key
  3. A process identifier
  4. A named reference marking a particular repository state
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. A named reference marking a particular repository state

Tags often identify versions or releases.

Question 137. A reproducible build aims to

  1. Produce identical outputs from the same defined inputs and environment
  2. Guarantee no bugs
  3. Always build faster
  4. Never require dependencies
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Produce identical outputs from the same defined inputs and environment

Controlled inputs improve build reproducibility.

Question 138. What is infrastructure as code (IaC)?

  1. Only writing application UI text
  2. Managing infrastructure configurations through versioned machine-readable definitions
  3. Manual server setup without records
  4. A software testing language
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Managing infrastructure configurations through versioned machine-readable definitions

IaC makes infrastructure provisioning repeatable.

Question 139. What is configuration drift?

  1. A deliberate API version increase
  2. A new user story
  3. Unplanned differences between deployed configurations and intended definitions
  4. A project completion event
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Unplanned differences between deployed configurations and intended definitions

Drift arises when environments depart from defined configuration.

Question 140. Feature flags allow teams to

  1. Replace all automated tests
  2. Guarantee no defects
  3. Avoid access control
  4. Enable or disable behavior without necessarily redeploying code
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Enable or disable behavior without necessarily redeploying code

Flags decouple feature activation from deployment.

Question 141. What is a canary release?

  1. Releasing a new version to a limited subset before broad rollout
  2. Deploying every change to all users instantly
  3. Using only test stubs
  4. Deleting older versions before deployment
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Releasing a new version to a limited subset before broad rollout

Canaries limit initial exposure to potential faults.

Question 142. What is blue-green deployment?

  1. Using only two programming languages
  2. Switching traffic between two production-like environments
  3. Maintaining two product backlogs
  4. Always creating duplicate databases
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Switching traffic between two production-like environments

Separate environments support safer cutovers and rollback.

Question 143. A rollback strategy is

  1. Only reformatting source code
  2. Disabling monitoring
  3. A plan to restore a previous known-good state after a failed change
  4. Always dropping user data
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. A plan to restore a previous known-good state after a failed change

Rollback reduces the impact of faulty deployments.

Question 144. What is observability in operations?

  1. Only possessing source code
  2. Only counting developers
  3. Guaranteeing zero outages
  4. Ability to infer internal system behavior from emitted information
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Ability to infer internal system behavior from emitted information

Metrics, logs, and traces aid diagnosis.

Question 145. A distributed trace helps

  1. Follow a request across multiple services
  2. Set a user’s password
  3. Normalize a database
  4. Choose a Sprint duration
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Follow a request across multiple services

Traces show causal spans along service boundaries.

Question 146. An operational metric is

  1. Only a design comment
  2. A numerical measurement of system behavior over time
  3. A compiler keyword
  4. A UML actor
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. A numerical measurement of system behavior over time

Metrics can represent latency, errors, or throughput.

Question 147. What is an SLO?

  1. A software license owner
  2. A source line offset
  3. A measurable service-level objective
  4. A standard lock operation
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. A measurable service-level objective

SLOs set targets for indicators of service performance.

Question 148. What is an error budget?

  1. A compiler error counter only
  2. A budget for buying keyboards
  3. The number of defects in a backlog
  4. The amount of unreliability allowed by a service reliability target
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. The amount of unreliability allowed by a service reliability target

Error budgets help balance release speed with reliability.

Question 149. What is mean time to recovery (MTTR)?

  1. Average time needed to restore service after failures
  2. Average code review duration
  3. Maximum testing rate
  4. Minimum memory requirement
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Average time needed to restore service after failures

MTTR is a recovery performance indicator.

Question 150. What is incident postmortem analysis?

  1. Only assigning individual blame
  2. Reviewing a failure to learn causes and improve response
  3. Deleting logs
  4. A mandatory software update
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Reviewing a failure to learn causes and improve response

Postmortems support systemic learning and prevention.

Software Engineering MCQs — Set 4 (Questions 151–200)

Choose an answer, then reveal the correct option and explanation.

Question 151. Corrective maintenance addresses

  1. Only new unrelated features
  2. Hardware purchases
  3. Defects found in software
  4. User recruitment
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Defects found in software

It fixes faults that have been identified.

Question 152. Adaptive maintenance responds to

  1. Only spelling corrections
  2. Only payroll updates
  3. Only colors
  4. Changes in environment or external interfaces
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Changes in environment or external interfaces

It adapts software to new operating conditions.

Question 153. Perfective maintenance enhances

  1. Existing functionality or qualities
  2. Only keyboard hardware
  3. Only salaries
  4. Only company branding
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Existing functionality or qualities

It improves a system beyond defect repair.

Question 154. Preventive maintenance reduces

  1. Every test case
  2. Potential future failures and change costs
  3. All future development
  4. All documentation
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Potential future failures and change costs

Proactive changes prevent likely problems.

Question 155. Software evolution concerns

  1. Only first compilation
  2. Only buying equipment
  3. Changes throughout a product’s useful life
  4. Only initial interviews
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Changes throughout a product’s useful life

Real systems continue changing after release.

Question 156. Legacy software can be

  1. Always abandoned
  2. A brand-new prototype only
  3. A network device
  4. Older technology that remains operationally important
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Older technology that remains operationally important

Legacy systems may be critical despite age.

Question 157. Reverse engineering attempts to

  1. Derive design knowledge from an existing system
  2. Always rewrite a program
  3. Create new hardware
  4. Delete all tests
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Derive design knowledge from an existing system

It reconstructs understanding from implementation.

Question 158. Software reengineering involves

  1. Only preparing a financial budget
  2. Improving or transforming existing software
  3. Only changing theme colors
  4. Always discarding all data
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Improving or transforming existing software

Reengineering can restructure or modernize applications.

Question 159. Technical documentation helps

  1. Avoid any testing
  2. Guarantee zero vulnerabilities
  3. Users and maintainers understand a system
  4. Replace authentication
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Users and maintainers understand a system

Documentation records necessary knowledge.

Question 160. Architecture decision records preserve

  1. Only commit counts
  2. Only user passwords
  3. Only daily attendance
  4. Important design decisions and reasoning
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Important design decisions and reasoning

ADRs capture choices, context and consequences.

Question 161. A changelog lists

  1. Notable changes between software releases
  2. Only compiler flags
  3. Only employee salaries
  4. Only disk sectors
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Notable changes between software releases

Changelogs communicate release modifications.

Question 162. Backward compatibility aims to

  1. Delete all previous users
  2. Keep existing clients working with newer versions
  3. Always change every public method
  4. Require all clients to upgrade immediately
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Keep existing clients working with newer versions

Compatible evolution minimizes disruption.

Question 163. API deprecation signals

  1. Guaranteed permanent support
  2. Immediate server shutdown
  3. Discouragement of future use and a transition path
  4. Automatic encryption
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Discouragement of future use and a transition path

Deprecation warns of preferred alternatives.

Question 164. A migration plan covers

  1. Only whitespace rules
  2. Only hiring decisions
  3. Only domain registration
  4. Transition steps, validation and fallback
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Transition steps, validation and fallback

Planning lowers transition risk.

Question 165. Migration validation checks

  1. Integrity and completeness of transferred data
  2. Only UI themes
  3. Only network cables
  4. Only tester schedules
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Integrity and completeness of transferred data

Checks compare migrated records to expectations.

Question 166. Configuration management tracks

  1. Only employee leave
  2. Versions and controlled changes of project artifacts
  3. Only internet bandwidth
  4. Only security camera footage
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Versions and controlled changes of project artifacts

It manages baselines and configuration items.

Question 167. Change control considers

  1. Only developer vacation
  2. Only code indentation
  3. Approvals and impacts of proposed modifications
  4. Only the newest test
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Approvals and impacts of proposed modifications

It structures evaluation and authorization.

Question 168. Impact analysis identifies

  1. Only how many users are online
  2. Only disk temperature
  3. Only spelling errors
  4. Elements affected by a proposed change
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Elements affected by a proposed change

It reveals dependencies and change consequences.

Question 169. A configuration baseline is

  1. An approved reference state
  2. Only a debugging breakpoint
  3. An undefined goal
  4. A CPU mode
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. An approved reference state

Baselines enable controlled comparisons.

Question 170. Software quality assurance emphasizes

  1. Only final bug fixing
  2. Systematic quality-oriented practices
  3. Only user interface colors
  4. Only compiler selection
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Systematic quality-oriented practices

SQA supports confidence in processes and products.

Question 171. Quality control evaluates

  1. Only project sponsorship
  2. Only employee hiring
  3. Deliverables against specified quality criteria
  4. Only equipment purchases
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Deliverables against specified quality criteria

QC focuses on examining outputs.

Question 172. A quality attribute scenario includes

  1. Only a table name
  2. Only a release tag
  3. Only a source filename
  4. A stimulus and measurable response
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. A stimulus and measurable response

Scenarios make quality goals testable.

Question 173. An example of a measurable availability requirement is

  1. At least 99.9 percent uptime over a defined month
  2. A blue login button
  3. A class with five methods
  4. A Git branch
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. At least 99.9 percent uptime over a defined month

Availability needs a measurable interval and target.

Question 174. Cyclomatic complexity is related to

  1. Number of internet users
  2. Independent control-flow paths
  3. RAM manufacturer
  4. Number of HTML tags only
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Independent control-flow paths

The measure reflects branching structure.

Question 175. Why use more than one quality metric

  1. Every metric is sufficient alone
  2. All metrics are invalid
  3. Each metric captures limited aspects of quality
  4. Metrics guarantee correctness
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Each metric captures limited aspects of quality

Context and multiple indicators improve assessment.

Question 176. Code duplication can increase

  1. Network transmission speed
  2. Compiler accuracy
  3. Number of CPU cores
  4. Maintenance effort when logic changes
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Maintenance effort when logic changes

Copied logic requires coordinated fixes.

Question 177. DRY encourages

  1. Avoiding unnecessary duplication of knowledge
  2. Copying every module
  3. Never creating functions
  4. Removing documentation
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Avoiding unnecessary duplication of knowledge

Don’t Repeat Yourself reduces redundant logic.

Question 178. YAGNI cautions against

  1. Using automated tests
  2. Implementing unnecessary speculative features
  3. Writing requirements
  4. Code review
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Implementing unnecessary speculative features

Features without present need add complexity.

Question 179. Threat modeling is used to

  1. Only estimate project salaries
  2. Only format documents
  3. Identify threats and possible mitigations
  4. Only build UML diagrams
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Identify threats and possible mitigations

It examines assets, risks and attack paths.

Question 180. An attack surface comprises

  1. Only the page background
  2. Only keyboard shortcuts
  3. Only server costs
  4. Exposed entry points and interactions
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Exposed entry points and interactions

Reachable interfaces present potential attack opportunities.

Question 181. Secure-by-design means

  1. Considering security throughout design and development
  2. Testing security only after deployment
  3. Trusting all input
  4. Disabling logging
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Considering security throughout design and development

Security should be part of lifecycle decisions.

Question 182. Least privilege grants

  1. Administrator access for everyone
  2. Only permissions required for assigned work
  3. A shared universal password
  4. Unlimited database access
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Only permissions required for assigned work

Limited permissions restrict potential damage.

Question 183. Input validation checks

  1. Whether all tests pass
  2. Only system uptime
  3. Whether data meet defined constraints
  4. Only deployment speed
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Whether data meet defined constraints

Inputs should satisfy format and range expectations.

Question 184. Parameterized queries separate

  1. All database tables from users
  2. Logs from backups
  3. Application code from documentation
  4. Data values from executable SQL structure
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Data values from executable SQL structure

Binding values mitigates SQL injection risk.

Question 185. Dependency scans identify

  1. Known flaws in included packages
  2. Only UI color contrast
  3. Only employee skills
  4. Only network bandwidth
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Known flaws in included packages

Scans compare components to vulnerability information.

Question 186. Secret management covers

  1. Publishing passwords in Git
  2. Secure storage, access and rotation of credentials
  3. Removing role checks
  4. Only changing filenames
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Secure storage, access and rotation of credentials

Secrets require controlled handling.

Question 187. Why should secrets not be committed to Git

  1. Git cannot store strings
  2. Passwords become safe after a commit
  3. Repository history can preserve exposed credentials
  4. All repositories are encrypted
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Repository history can preserve exposed credentials

Exposure can persist in old versions.

Question 188. Secure logging avoids

  1. All error messages
  2. All event timestamps
  3. All failure alerts
  4. Unnecessary disclosure of private or sensitive values
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Unnecessary disclosure of private or sensitive values

Logs should be useful without exposing secrets.

Question 189. Disaster recovery planning specifies

  1. How critical systems can be restored after major incidents
  2. Only source indentation
  3. Only UI wireframes
  4. Only a meeting schedule
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. How critical systems can be restored after major incidents

Recovery targets and procedures improve preparedness.

Question 190. Business continuity planning emphasizes

  1. Only increasing code coverage
  2. Keeping essential services functioning through disruption
  3. Only new requirements
  4. Only changing vendors
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Keeping essential services functioning through disruption

Continuity spans people, processes and systems.

Question 191. RTO means

  1. Release Testing Operation
  2. Relative Transaction Order
  3. Recovery Time Objective
  4. Risk Tracking Output
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Recovery Time Objective

RTO specifies a target restoration duration.

Question 192. RPO means

  1. Release Process Outcome
  2. Runtime Privacy Option
  3. Risk Priority Order
  4. Recovery Point Objective
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Recovery Point Objective

RPO specifies tolerable potential data loss.

Question 193. Project stakeholders are

  1. People or groups influencing or affected by the work
  2. Only developers
  3. Only accountants
  4. Only computer vendors
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. People or groups influencing or affected by the work

Stakeholders include users, sponsors and operators.

Question 194. Effort estimation forecasts

  1. Physical memory size
  2. Work required to complete tasks
  3. Only download speed
  4. Only compiler warnings
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Work required to complete tasks

Estimates help resource and schedule planning.

Question 195. Story points commonly measure

  1. Universal fixed hours
  2. Processor clock cycles
  3. Relative estimated work size for a team
  4. Number of tests passed
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Relative estimated work size for a team

Story points are team-relative.

Question 196. Risk mitigation seeks to

  1. Ignore potential threats
  2. Delete the risk register
  3. Avoid all planning
  4. Reduce probability or impact of adverse events
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Reduce probability or impact of adverse events

Mitigations reduce exposure.

Question 197. A retrospective is useful for

  1. Improving future practices from past experience
  2. Only assigning blame
  3. Only choosing colors
  4. Only buying computers
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Improving future practices from past experience

Reflection supports process improvement.

Question 198. A communication plan establishes

  1. Only the compiler version
  2. Who receives what information and when
  3. Only schema definitions
  4. Only salary data
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Who receives what information and when

Planned communication improves coordination.

Question 199. An issue tracker helps

  1. Replace every test
  2. Compile all code automatically
  3. Record, prioritize and monitor tasks or defects
  4. Guarantee a project deadline
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Record, prioritize and monitor tasks or defects

Tracking supports visibility and accountability.

Question 200. A lessons-learned register captures

  1. Only final executable files
  2. Only database passwords
  3. Only office inventory
  4. Practical insights for future project decisions
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Practical insights for future project decisions

Recorded learning informs later projects.

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