Parallel and Distributed Computing

Parallel and Distributed Computing

Introduction

Study computation across multiple processors or networked systems, including communication, synchronisation and performance.

Topic-Wise Overview

Parallel Models

Concurrency, parallelism, MIMD, SIMD and programming models

Communication

Message passing, MPI and shared or distributed memory

Correctness

Synchronization, consistency, scheduling and fault tolerance

Platforms

GPUs, multithreading, clusters and cloud environments

Performance

Load balancing, scalability, parallel I/O and tuning

Study Guidance

Study all 200 Parallel and Distributed Computing MCQs below in four sets of 50, each with four answer options, the correct answer and a clear explanation. Topics include concurrency, parallelism, scheduling, synchronization, MPI message passing, logical clocks, consensus, replication, fault tolerance, GPUs, cloud infrastructure, MapReduce, performance and distributed storage.

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Parallel and Distributed Computing MCQs — Set 1 (Questions 1–50)

Choose an option and reveal the correct answer and explanation.

Question 1. What is concurrency in a computing system?

  1. Overlapping progress of tasks
  2. Only simultaneous cores
  3. Only one thread
  4. Only GPUs
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Overlapping progress of tasks

Concurrency permits multiple tasks to make progress during overlapping time intervals. Their instructions may interleave even on a single processor.

Question 2. What distinguishes parallelism from concurrency?

  1. Only time slicing
  2. Actual simultaneous execution
  3. Only serial code
  4. Only swapping
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Actual simultaneous execution

Parallelism requires work to execute at the same time, for example on separate CPU cores. Concurrency alone does not necessarily imply simultaneous execution.

Question 3. What is task parallelism?

  1. Only identical operations
  2. Only one task
  3. Different activities execute concurrently
  4. Only shared memory
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Different activities execute concurrently

Task parallelism assigns different operations or activities to concurrent workers. The activities can contribute to a shared overall result.

Question 4. What is data parallelism?

  1. Different unrelated programs only
  2. No partitions
  3. Only one element
  4. Same computation over different data subsets
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Correct answer: D. Same computation over different data subsets

Data parallelism applies the same operation to multiple parts of a dataset. The separate portions can be processed simultaneously.

Question 5. What does SIMD stand for?

  1. Single Instruction Multiple Data
  2. Single Input Multiple Disk
  3. Serial Instruction Memory Data
  4. Shared Input Multiple Devices
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Correct answer: A. Single Instruction Multiple Data

SIMD means Single Instruction, Multiple Data. One instruction operates on multiple data elements using multiple processing lanes.

Question 6. What does MIMD stand for?

  1. Managed Input Multiple Disks
  2. Multiple Instruction Multiple Data
  3. Memory Instruction Main Device
  4. Multiple Input Main Data
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Correct answer: B. Multiple Instruction Multiple Data

MIMD means Multiple Instruction, Multiple Data. Different processors may execute different instruction streams on different data.

Question 7. What does SPMD stand for?

  1. Single Process Main Disk
  2. Sequential Pipeline Memory Data
  3. Single Program Multiple Data
  4. Shared Processor Memory Design
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Single Program Multiple Data

SPMD means Single Program, Multiple Data. Several workers execute the same program but typically process distinct input partitions.

Question 8. What is a process in an operating system?

  1. Only a register
  2. Only source file
  3. Only cache line
  4. Executing program instance with resource context
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Correct answer: D. Executing program instance with resource context

A process is a program in execution together with its execution state and allocated resources. Operating systems normally isolate processes from one another.

Question 9. What is a thread?

  1. Execution stream within a process
  2. A network device
  3. Only a disk sector
  4. An assembly opcode
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Execution stream within a process

A thread is an independently schedulable execution stream inside a process. Threads in the same process usually share its address space.

Question 10. What is a multicore processor?

  1. Only many disks
  2. Chip with multiple processing cores
  3. Only one register
  4. No CPU cache
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Chip with multiple processing cores

A multicore processor contains more than one processing core on a chip. Different cores can execute independent instructions concurrently.

Question 11. What characterizes a shared-memory programming model?

  1. Only network messages
  2. No shared data
  3. Workers access common address space
  4. Only GPU use
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Workers access common address space

In a shared-memory model, workers can read and write a common address space. Synchronization may be needed to coordinate their accesses.

Question 12. What characterizes a distributed-memory system?

  1. One global register file
  2. No networking
  3. Only one node
  4. Nodes have separate address spaces
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Nodes have separate address spaces

In distributed memory, each node or process has its own address space. Data on another node must normally be obtained through communication.

Question 13. How do processes communicate in a message-passing model?

  1. Communicates via send and receive
  2. Only through shared variables
  3. Only through disk defragmentation
  4. Only through clock speed
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Communicates via send and receive

Message passing exchanges information using explicit sends and receives. It is especially useful when workers do not share an address space.

Question 14. What does embarrassingly parallel mean?

  1. Every task requires global locks
  2. Tasks need little interworker coordination
  3. No task may run concurrently
  4. All tasks form one chain
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Correct answer: B. Tasks need little interworker coordination

Embarrassingly parallel tasks can run mostly independently. Little communication or coordination is required between workers.

Question 15. What does a task dependency graph represent?

  1. Only network routers
  2. Only disk folders
  3. Shows precedence among tasks
  4. Only password permissions
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Shows precedence among tasks

A dependency graph describes precedence constraints between tasks. A directed edge typically means one task must finish before another can proceed.

Question 16. What is the critical path in a task dependency graph?

  1. Shortest network cable
  2. Only first task
  3. All tasks combined arbitrarily
  4. Longest weighted dependent path
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Correct answer: D. Longest weighted dependent path

The critical path is the longest path when task durations are used as weights. Its length limits how quickly the whole dependency graph can finish.

Question 17. What does total work W measure in a parallel algorithm?

  1. Total computational operations
  2. Only the longest chain
  3. Only processor count
  4. Only input file size
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Correct answer: A. Total computational operations

Total work W represents the aggregate computation required across all tasks. It approximates the time taken by a single ideal worker.

Question 18. What does the span S of a parallel computation measure?

  1. Total memory usage
  2. Length of longest dependent chain
  3. Total worker count
  4. Only bandwidth
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Correct answer: B. Length of longest dependent chain

The span S is the duration of the longest dependency chain. Even unlimited processors cannot finish faster than this chain permits.

Question 19. What is the work-law lower bound for execution on p processors?

  1. Runtime always equals W
  2. Runtime is always zero
  3. Runtime on p workers is at least W divided by p
  4. Runtime is less than W divided by p
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Correct answer: C. Runtime on p workers is at least W divided by p

With p identical processors performing at most one unit of work per unit time, Tₚ ≥ W/p. This follows because all W units of work must be completed.

Question 20. What is the span-law lower bound for parallel execution?

  1. Runtime is always smaller than S
  2. Dependencies vanish
  3. Only memory limits work
  4. Parallel runtime is at least S
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Correct answer: D. Parallel runtime is at least S

Parallel execution cannot bypass required dependencies, so Tₚ ≥ S. This bound is independent of how many processors are available.

Question 21. How is parallel speedup defined?

  1. Sequential time divided by parallel time
  2. Parallel time over sequential
  3. Only core count
  4. Only throughput
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Correct answer: A. Sequential time divided by parallel time

Speedup is T₁/Tₚ, where T₁ is sequential execution time and Tₚ is time using p processors. A larger value indicates a greater runtime reduction.

Question 22. How is parallel efficiency calculated?

  1. Processors divided by speedup
  2. Speedup divided by processor count
  3. Speedup times count
  4. Only clock rate
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Correct answer: B. Speedup divided by processor count

Parallel efficiency is Eₚ = (T₁/Tₚ)/p = speedup/p. It expresses the achieved speedup relative to the processor count.

Question 23. A program takes 100 seconds sequentially and 25 seconds in parallel. What is its speedup?

  1. 2
  2. 25
  3. 4
  4. 0.25
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Correct answer: C. 4

Speedup equals sequential time divided by parallel time: 100/25 = 4. Thus the parallel run is four times as fast in elapsed time.

Question 24. A program achieves speedup 6 on 8 processors. What is its parallel efficiency?

  1. 125 percent
  2. 6 percent
  3. 48 percent
  4. 75 percent
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Correct answer: D. 75 percent

Efficiency is speedup divided by processor count: 6/8 = 0.75, or 75%. This is the fraction of ideal linear speedup achieved.

Question 25. What is strong scaling?

  1. Fixed workload with increasing workers
  2. Fixed work per processor
  3. Only increasing problem size
  4. Only CPU frequency
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Correct answer: A. Fixed workload with increasing workers

Strong scaling measures how runtime changes as processor count rises while the total problem size remains fixed.

Question 26. What is weak scaling?

  1. Fixed total workload
  2. Fixed work per worker while increasing total workload and workers
  3. Only more RAM
  4. Only one core
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Correct answer: B. Fixed work per worker while increasing total workload and workers

Weak scaling increases the overall problem size as more workers are added so that the workload per worker stays approximately constant.

Question 27. What does Amdahl’s law describe?

  1. All tasks scale infinitely
  2. Only cache effect
  3. Serial fraction limits fixed-size speedup
  4. Only compiler phases
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Correct answer: C. Serial fraction limits fixed-size speedup

Amdahl’s law shows how the part of a fixed workload that cannot be parallelized limits overall speedup.

Question 28. If the serial fraction is 10%, what is the theoretical maximum speedup as the processor count approaches infinity?

  1. 100
  2. Unlimited
  3. 1
  4. 10
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Correct answer: D. 10

With serial fraction f = 0.10, the infinite-processor limit of Amdahl’s speedup is 1/f = 10.

Question 29. What does Gustafson’s law emphasize?

  1. Scaled-size speedup perspective
  2. Only fixed-size speedup
  3. Only disk speed
  4. Only networking
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Correct answer: A. Scaled-size speedup perspective

Gustafson’s law considers scaled workloads: with additional processors, more total work may be completed in approximately the same time.

Question 30. What is parallel overhead?

  1. Only useful computation
  2. Additional communication and coordination cost
  3. Only input count
  4. Only storage size
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Correct answer: B. Additional communication and coordination cost

Parallel overhead is extra work or time due to communication, synchronization, scheduling and related coordination. It may prevent ideal scaling.

Question 31. What is the purpose of load balancing?

  1. Put everything on one core
  2. Disable scheduling
  3. Distribute work to reduce idle resources
  4. Only increase RAM
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Correct answer: C. Distribute work to reduce idle resources

Load balancing distributes work so that some workers do not remain idle while others are overloaded. Effective balancing improves resource use.

Question 32. What is static task scheduling?

  1. Only assigned at runtime
  2. Never assigns work
  3. Always migrates work
  4. Work assignment chosen in advance
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Correct answer: D. Work assignment chosen in advance

Static scheduling assigns tasks to workers before execution, usually according to a predetermined plan. It has low decision overhead but can be less adaptive.

Question 33. What is dynamic task scheduling?

  1. Assign work as execution proceeds
  2. Always fixed before start
  3. Only one worker
  4. Requires no decisions
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Assign work as execution proceeds

Dynamic scheduling assigns work while execution is underway. It can respond to irregular task durations and changing loads.

Question 34. What is work stealing?

  1. Busy worker deletes tasks
  2. Idle worker obtains tasks from another queue
  3. Every worker duplicates tasks
  4. Only one thread
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Correct answer: B. Idle worker obtains tasks from another queue

In work stealing, an idle worker takes available work from another worker’s task queue. This can balance irregular parallel workloads.

Question 35. What does task granularity mean?

  1. Number of files only
  2. Only number of servers
  3. Amount of work per task
  4. Only memory address
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Correct answer: C. Amount of work per task

Task granularity refers to how much computation each task contains. Very small tasks may incur proportionally more scheduling overhead.

Question 36. What is a coarse-grained task?

  1. One instruction always
  2. No data
  3. Only a label
  4. Relatively large work unit
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Correct answer: D. Relatively large work unit

A coarse-grained task contains relatively substantial work. Fewer, larger tasks can reduce scheduling overhead but may limit flexibility.

Question 37. What is a fine-grained task?

  1. Relatively small work unit
  2. An entire cluster always
  3. No computation
  4. Only a full process
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Correct answer: A. Relatively small work unit

A fine-grained task represents a smaller unit of work. Many small tasks can improve balancing but add coordination overhead.

Question 38. What is a parallel reduction?

  1. Only delete records
  2. Combine partial results using aggregation
  3. Only reset cores
  4. Only change data types
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Correct answer: B. Combine partial results using aggregation

A reduction combines partial outputs into an aggregate result, such as a sum or maximum. A tree-shaped reduction can combine independent partial results in parallel.

Question 39. Why is associativity important in a parallel reduction?

  1. Guarantees commutativity
  2. Eliminates communication
  3. Allows regrouping mathematical operands
  4. Forces exact floating point
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Correct answer: C. Allows regrouping mathematical operands

Associativity allows operands to be regrouped without changing the mathematical result, for example (a+b)+c = a+(b+c). This enables tree-based grouping.

Question 40. Why can changing the order of a floating-point reduction change the numerical result?

  1. Always gives bitwise identical result
  2. Is always illegal
  3. Needs only one core
  4. May change rounding results
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Correct answer: D. May change rounding results

Floating-point arithmetic introduces rounding at intermediate steps. Because floating-point addition is not exactly associative, regrouping can change the final rounded value.

Question 41. What is a synchronization barrier?

  1. Workers meet at a synchronization point
  2. Only one worker starts
  3. All workers terminate permanently
  4. Memory is deleted
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Correct answer: A. Workers meet at a synchronization point

A barrier requires participating workers to reach a synchronization point before any of them proceeds into the next phase.

Question 42. What is a race condition?

  1. Always a fast program
  2. Result depends on uncontrolled concurrent timing
  3. Only a cache hit
  4. Only a disk crash
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Correct answer: B. Result depends on uncontrolled concurrent timing

A race condition occurs when the result depends on the timing or ordering of concurrent operations. Unsynchronized access to shared data is a common cause.

Question 43. What is a critical section?

  1. Only program startup
  2. Only read-only source comments
  3. Code using shared state requiring coordinated access
  4. A network route
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Correct answer: C. Code using shared state requiring coordinated access

A critical section is code that accesses shared state requiring coordination. A mutex or another synchronization mechanism may protect it.

Question 44. What is a mutex?

  1. Network checksum
  2. GPU opcode
  3. Disk sector
  4. Mutual-exclusion synchronization primitive
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Correct answer: D. Mutual-exclusion synchronization primitive

A mutex provides mutual exclusion: at most one holder may enter the protected critical region at a time.

Question 45. What does it mean for an operation to be atomic?

  1. Indivisible relative to specified concurrent observers
  2. Always zero-time
  3. Never accesses memory
  4. Only a compiler comment
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Correct answer: A. Indivisible relative to specified concurrent observers

An atomic operation appears indivisible to the specified concurrent observers. They do not observe an intermediate, partially completed state.

Question 46. What is a semaphore?

  1. Only a CPU instruction
  2. Counter-based synchronization primitive
  3. Only a network link
  4. A file index
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Correct answer: B. Counter-based synchronization primitive

A semaphore uses a counter with synchronization operations to coordinate threads or limit access to a number of resources.

Question 47. What is deadlock?

  1. Every thread completes
  2. No locks exist
  3. Cyclic waiting prevents progress
  4. Only arithmetic overflow
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Correct answer: C. Cyclic waiting prevents progress

Deadlock arises when participants are permanently blocked waiting for events that cannot occur, often because each holds a resource needed by another.

Question 48. What is starvation in concurrent scheduling?

  1. Every task executes fairly
  2. All processors idle
  3. Only process termination
  4. A task waits indefinitely while others make progress
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Correct answer: D. A task waits indefinitely while others make progress

Starvation occurs when a worker is repeatedly denied the resources or scheduling opportunities it needs, even while other workers continue making progress.

Question 49. What is livelock?

  1. Tasks remain active but make no useful progress
  2. Every thread sleeps forever
  3. All tasks complete
  4. A successful barrier
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Correct answer: A. Tasks remain active but make no useful progress

In livelock, threads or processes remain active and keep reacting to one another, but fail to make useful progress.

Question 50. What is a condition variable used for?

  1. Always replaces data storage
  2. Allows threads to wait for a state predicate with mutex coordination
  3. Only encrypts code
  4. Only changes CPU speed
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Correct answer: B. Allows threads to wait for a state predicate with mutex coordination

A condition variable lets threads wait until a shared-state predicate may be true. Correct use normally involves holding a mutex and rechecking the predicate after waking.

Parallel and Distributed Computing MCQs — Set 2 (Questions 51–100)

Choose an option and reveal the correct answer and explanation.

Question 51. What does MPI stand for?

  1. Multiple Processor Index
  2. Memory Paging Instruction
  3. Message Passing Interface
  4. Managed Process Integration
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Correct answer: C. Message Passing Interface

MPI is the Message Passing Interface, a standardized API specification for processes exchanging data. Different implementations support parallel programs on clusters and other distributed-memory platforms.

Question 52. What is the purpose of an MPI communicator?

  1. Only a CPU register
  2. Only a disk directory
  3. A compiler macro only
  4. Defines a group and communication context
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Correct answer: D. Defines a group and communication context

A communicator defines both a set of participating processes and a communication context. Messages in different communicators are kept distinct even when their source and tag values coincide.

Question 53. What does an MPI rank identify?

  1. Identifies a process within a communicator
  2. Always indicates processor speed
  3. Only disk block count
  4. Only memory capacity
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Correct answer: A. Identifies a process within a communicator

Rank is a process’s identifier within a particular communicator, normally numbered from zero. The same process can have different ranks in different communicators.

Question 54. What does the size of an MPI communicator indicate?

  1. Only message bytes
  2. Number of processes in a communicator
  3. Only stack frames
  4. Only CPU core frequency
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Correct answer: B. Number of processes in a communicator

Communicator size is the number of processes belonging to it. Programs can query this count to partition workloads and organize collective operations.

Question 55. What does MPI_Send do?

  1. Only allocates memory
  2. Only creates a process
  3. Initiates standard point-to-point send
  4. Only performs barrier
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Correct answer: C. Initiates standard point-to-point send

MPI_Send performs a standard-mode point-to-point send. It returns when the send buffer can safely be reused; this does not necessarily mean the receiving process has completed its receive.

Question 56. What does MPI_Recv do?

  1. Only launches threads
  2. Only sorts arrays
  3. Only changes rank
  4. Receives a matching message
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Correct answer: D. Receives a matching message

MPI_Recv receives a matching point-to-point message into the supplied buffer. Its completion indicates that the received data are available for use.

Question 57. Why is a message tag used in MPI?

  1. Helps distinguish communication types
  2. Only names a CPU
  3. Only identifies disk partition
  4. Only stores memory address
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Correct answer: A. Helps distinguish communication types

A tag helps the receiver distinguish message categories when matching sends and receives. Source, communicator and tag collectively help specify eligible messages.

Question 58. When does a blocking MPI receive return?

  1. Always returns before data arrive
  2. Returns after the receive is complete
  3. Only works on GPUs
  4. Never needs matching send
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Correct answer: B. Returns after the receive is complete

A blocking receive returns only after the matching message has been received into the destination buffer. It may wait if no eligible send is available.

Question 59. What does MPI_Isend initiate?

  1. Forces immediate global synchronization
  2. Only receives values
  3. Initiates a nonblocking send request
  4. Only terminates MPI
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Correct answer: C. Initiates a nonblocking send request

MPI_Isend starts a nonblocking send and returns a request handle. The application must complete that request before reusing the send buffer in a way that changes its contents.

Question 60. What is the role of MPI_Wait?

  1. Only broadcasts a message
  2. Only changes process rank
  3. Only reads shared file
  4. Waits for completion of a nonblocking MPI request
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Correct answer: D. Waits for completion of a nonblocking MPI request

MPI_Wait blocks until the specified outstanding request reaches completion. For a nonblocking send, completion establishes that its send buffer can be safely reused.

Question 61. What does MPI_Bcast do?

  1. Distributes data from a root to members of communicator
  2. Combines all values into one
  3. Only terminates processes
  4. Only reads storage
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Correct answer: A. Distributes data from a root to members of communicator

MPI_Bcast broadcasts data from one designated root process to all members of the communicator. All participants call the collective with compatible arguments.

Question 62. What is MPI_Reduce used for?

  1. Only sends one message to all
  2. Combines values from processes at a selected root
  3. Creates a file
  4. Always changes communicator membership
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Correct answer: B. Combines values from processes at a selected root

MPI_Reduce combines contributions, such as sums or maxima, across participating processes and places the reduced result at a chosen root process.

Question 63. What does MPI_Allreduce provide?

  1. Only returns result to root
  2. Only changes ranks
  3. Combines values and makes result available to all participating processes
  4. Only initializes MPI
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Correct answer: C. Combines values and makes result available to all participating processes

MPI_Allreduce computes a collective reduction and supplies the result to every participant. It is useful when all processes need a shared global value.

Question 64. What does MPI_Scatter distribute?

  1. Collects one chunk from every process
  2. Only computes sums
  3. Only handles errors
  4. Distributes different chunks from root to processes
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Correct answer: D. Distributes different chunks from root to processes

MPI_Scatter distributes distinct portions of a root process’s data to participants. It is often used to divide an array among workers.

Question 65. What does MPI_Gather collect?

  1. Collects contributions from processes at root
  2. Distributes different chunks
  3. Only performs broadcast
  4. Only changes message tags
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Correct answer: A. Collects contributions from processes at root

MPI_Gather collects a contribution from each participating process and assembles them at the root. It is the complementary gathering pattern to scatter.

Question 66. What is the purpose of MPI_Allgather?

  1. Only root receives contributions
  2. Makes gathered contributions available to all processes
  3. Only one process participates
  4. Only creates messages without transfer
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Correct answer: B. Makes gathered contributions available to all processes

MPI_Allgather collects all participants’ contributions and makes the combined results available to every process, rather than only the root.

Question 67. What does MPI_Barrier synchronize?

  1. Only sends a value
  2. Only allocates a rank
  3. Synchronizes participating processes at a collective point
  4. Only computes average
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Correct answer: C. Synchronizes participating processes at a collective point

MPI_Barrier is a collective synchronization call. A process returns only after all relevant members of the communicator have entered that barrier.

Question 68. Why must collective MPI calls be ordered compatibly?

  1. May be arbitrary with mismatched collectives
  2. Never matters
  3. Only requires identical CPU speed
  4. Must be compatible among participating processes
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Correct answer: D. Must be compatible among participating processes

Processes in a communicator must invoke collective operations in a compatible order. Mismatched operations can lead to deadlock or undefined communication behavior.

Question 69. What does an MPI datatype describe?

  1. Describes transmitted element representation
  2. Only sets processor count
  3. Only identifies network IP
  4. Only indicates source file
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Correct answer: A. Describes transmitted element representation

An MPI datatype specifies how communicated values are represented and arranged. It lets MPI handle element counts and matching data layouts.

Question 70. When is an MPI derived datatype useful?

  1. Always changes programming language
  2. Represents structured or noncontiguous memory layouts
  3. Only compresses packets
  4. Only allocates cache
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Correct answer: B. Represents structured or noncontiguous memory layouts

Derived datatypes describe arrays, strided regions or structures without manually copying every element into a contiguous temporary buffer.

Question 71. What is point-to-point communication?

  1. Always involves every worker
  2. Only accesses shared registers
  3. Connects specific sending and receiving processes
  4. Only supports file I/O
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Correct answer: C. Connects specific sending and receiving processes

Point-to-point communication connects a particular sender with a particular receiver, with matching rules for source, destination, tag and communicator.

Question 72. What is collective communication?

  1. Only one isolated worker
  2. Only one CPU interrupt
  3. Only a linker action
  4. Involves a defined group of participating processes
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Correct answer: D. Involves a defined group of participating processes

A collective involves a participating group defined by a communicator. Examples include broadcasts, reductions and barriers; all required members must participate correctly.

Question 73. What is communication latency?

  1. Time until message transfer or response becomes available under a model
  2. Only message bytes per second
  3. Only core count
  4. Only process rank
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Correct answer: A. Time until message transfer or response becomes available under a model

Latency is communication delay, often modeled as a fixed startup cost before data transfer dominates. It matters especially for short messages.

Question 74. What is communication bandwidth?

  1. Only startup delay
  2. Data volume transferred per unit time
  3. Only message tag
  4. Only number of locks
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Correct answer: B. Data volume transferred per unit time

Bandwidth is the amount of data transferred per unit time, commonly bytes per second. Large-message performance is often limited by available bandwidth.

Question 75. How does the alpha-beta communication model estimate message cost?

  1. Always zero transfer time
  2. Only CPU instruction count
  3. Message cost approximates startup latency plus size-dependent transfer time
  4. Only cache miss rate
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Correct answer: C. Message cost approximates startup latency plus size-dependent transfer time

A common model is T(n) = α + βn, where α is startup latency, β is transfer time per byte and n is message size. Both fixed and size-dependent costs matter.

Question 76. Why can sending many tiny messages be inefficient?

  1. Always costs less than one batched message
  2. Eliminates network latency
  3. Only affects disk files
  4. Can incur high total startup overhead
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Correct answer: D. Can incur high total startup overhead

Each small message incurs a startup cost. Grouping data into fewer, larger messages can reduce aggregate overhead when application requirements permit.

Question 77. What does overlapping communication and computation mean?

  1. Progresses useful work while transfers are in flight
  2. Always serializes sends and computation
  3. Only requires no network
  4. Only involves shared disk
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Correct answer: A. Progresses useful work while transfers are in flight

Useful computations proceed while data communication is in progress. This can conceal some transfer latency, provided the MPI implementation and application actually make progress.

Question 78. How can blocking receives cause deadlock?

  1. Never occurs in MPI
  2. Can occur if processes wait for messages that none can send
  3. Only happens with no communication
  4. Always fixes itself
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Correct answer: B. Can occur if processes wait for messages that none can send

Deadlock is possible when processes block waiting for receives whose corresponding sends cannot execute. Careful matching and nonblocking patterns may avoid such cycles.

Question 79. What is an MPI wildcard receive?

  1. Always rejects all senders
  2. Only works on rank zero
  3. Can accept data from more than one eligible source under specified matching rules
  4. Only receives one byte
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Can accept data from more than one eligible source under specified matching rules

A wildcard receive can match more than one eligible sending process, for example by using MPI_ANY_SOURCE. Tags and communicator still constrain matching.

Question 80. How are message ordering guarantees defined in MPI?

  1. Guarantees global order for all senders
  2. Never orders any message
  3. Only depends on message size
  4. Preserves ordering for messages meeting relevant ordering conditions between matching endpoints
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Preserves ordering for messages meeting relevant ordering conditions between matching endpoints

MPI applies nonovertaking rules under specified matching conditions for ordered sends. It does not guarantee a single global order across unrelated senders.

Question 81. How can threads communicate through shared memory?

  1. Transfers information through common addressable locations
  2. Only uses network packets
  3. Never needs synchronization
  4. Cannot have data races
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Transfers information through common addressable locations

Threads in a shared address space communicate by reading and writing shared variables. Appropriate synchronization is needed to avoid races and visibility errors.

Question 82. What is thread-local storage?

  1. Makes all variables globally shared
  2. Gives each thread its own instance of specified data
  3. Requires one thread only
  4. Stores all data on disk
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Gives each thread its own instance of specified data

Thread-local storage provides a distinct instance of specified data for each thread. Changes to one thread’s instance do not modify another thread’s instance.

Question 83. What does a memory fence constrain?

  1. Only increases cache size
  2. Only allocates stacks
  3. Restricts observable memory ordering according to memory model
  4. Only compresses messages
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Restricts observable memory ordering according to memory model

A fence constrains the ordering or visibility of memory operations under the relevant memory model. Its guarantees depend on how it is combined with atomic synchronization.

Question 84. What do acquire memory-ordering semantics provide?

  1. Always writes to disk
  2. Eliminates all synchronization
  3. Only counts threads
  4. Prevents specified later accesses from being reordered before an acquire
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Prevents specified later accesses from being reordered before an acquire

An acquire operation restricts later operations from moving before it and can observe values published by a compatible release operation.

Question 85. What do release memory-ordering semantics provide?

  1. Ensures specified earlier effects precede a release operation
  2. Always cancels prior writes
  3. Only prevents future reads
  4. Only performs garbage collection
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Ensures specified earlier effects precede a release operation

A release operation orders preceding accesses before publication through that atomic action. Paired with an appropriate acquire, it can establish synchronization.

Question 86. What is a compare-and-swap operation?

  1. Only copies arrays
  2. Atomically tests and conditionally updates a location
  3. Always locks the whole system
  4. Only compares file names
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Atomically tests and conditionally updates a location

Compare-and-swap atomically compares a memory location with an expected value and updates it when they match. It is a building block for nonblocking structures.

Question 87. What is a fetch-and-add operation?

  1. Only loads without changing
  2. Only updates source code
  3. Atomically returns and updates a numeric value
  4. Only performs MPI broadcast
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Atomically returns and updates a numeric value

Fetch-and-add performs an atomic addition and returns the prior value in the common API convention. This supports safe counters shared by multiple threads.

Question 88. What is a spinlock?

  1. Always suspends thread without polling
  2. Only works across disks
  3. Never blocks progress
  4. Waits by repeatedly checking lock availability
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Waits by repeatedly checking lock availability

A spinlock repeatedly polls until it can acquire ownership instead of sleeping. It may suit very short waits but wastes CPU time under long contention.

Question 89. What is a read-write lock?

  1. Allows concurrent readers while controlling writers
  2. Always allows all writers concurrently
  3. Forbids all reads
  4. Only protects network interfaces
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Allows concurrent readers while controlling writers

A read-write lock usually admits multiple readers simultaneously but requires writers to hold exclusive access. Fairness and starvation properties depend on the implementation.

Question 90. What is lock contention?

  1. Only a CPU cache hit
  2. Multiple workers compete for a synchronization resource
  3. Only an invalid token
  4. Only a storage checksum
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Multiple workers compete for a synchronization resource

Contention occurs when multiple workers request the same lock or resource. Increasing contention forces additional waiting and can limit parallel speedup.

Question 91. Why does critical-section length affect parallel performance?

  1. Never affects contention
  2. Only changes compiler syntax
  3. Affects how long other workers may wait on a shared lock
  4. Only sets message tag
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Affects how long other workers may wait on a shared lock

Long critical sections keep shared locks occupied for longer intervals. Other workers may be forced to wait, reducing concurrency and throughput.

Question 92. When can a barrier cause deadlock?

  1. Always prevented by more threads
  2. Only occurs with disk faults
  3. Only means all tasks finished
  4. May occur when required participants never reach the barrier
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. May occur when required participants never reach the barrier

A barrier can block indefinitely when one required participant never arrives, such as when control flow skips the barrier or a participant has failed.

Question 93. What is priority inversion?

  1. Lower-priority holder delays higher-priority worker through a shared resource
  2. Only high-priority tasks always win
  3. Only an arithmetic error
  4. Only a network packet reorder
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Lower-priority holder delays higher-priority worker through a shared resource

Priority inversion happens when a high-priority task waits for a lower-priority lock holder. Priority inheritance is one possible mitigation.

Question 94. How does waiting on a condition variable usually interact with its mutex?

  1. Always holds mutex for entire wait
  2. Releases associated mutex while waiting and reacquires it before return under common APIs
  3. Never needs a predicate loop
  4. Only changes process rank
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Releases associated mutex while waiting and reacquires it before return under common APIs

A condition-variable wait typically releases the associated mutex atomically with entering the wait, then reacquires it before returning. This lets another thread update the predicate.

Question 95. What is a spurious wakeup?

  1. Means data corruption
  2. Means lock is permanently lost
  3. A waiting thread resumes without the awaited predicate necessarily becoming true
  4. Can never happen
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. A waiting thread resumes without the awaited predicate necessarily becoming true

Threads can wake without the desired condition being true, including spurious wakeups. Therefore a condition-variable wait should usually be enclosed in a loop that rechecks its predicate.

Question 96. What is the producer-consumer synchronization pattern?

  1. Only computes factorial
  2. Only manages cache tags
  3. Only runs one instruction
  4. Coordinates data production and consumption through a shared buffer or channel
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Coordinates data production and consumption through a shared buffer or channel

Producers place items into a buffer or channel, while consumers remove and process them. Synchronization coordinates empty and full conditions.

Question 97. What is a bounded buffer?

  1. Has finite capacity requiring backpressure or waiting when full
  2. Has infinite memory
  3. Can never be empty
  4. Only holds one bit
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Has finite capacity requiring backpressure or waiting when full

A bounded buffer has finite capacity. Producers must block, drop work or apply backpressure when the buffer is full, depending on system design.

Question 98. What is backpressure in a processing pipeline?

  1. Always increases data production
  2. Slows upstream producers when downstream capacity is limited
  3. Deletes all waiting tasks
  4. Only applies to disk formatting
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Slows upstream producers when downstream capacity is limited

Backpressure propagates reduced downstream capacity toward upstream producers. It prevents uncontrolled queue growth and resource exhaustion.

Question 99. What progress guarantee defines a lock-free algorithm?

  1. Guarantees every thread completes in fixed steps
  2. Uses no atomic instructions
  3. Guarantees system-wide progress despite individual thread delays under its model
  4. Means no synchronization needed
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Guarantees system-wide progress despite individual thread delays under its model

Lock-freedom guarantees that some operation across the system completes in a finite number of steps despite delays of individual threads. It does not promise each thread will succeed promptly.

Question 100. What progress guarantee defines a wait-free algorithm?

  1. Only guarantees some thread progresses
  2. Always uses a mutex
  3. Requires no memory operations
  4. Guarantees each operation completes within a bounded number of its own steps
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Guarantees each operation completes within a bounded number of its own steps

Wait-freedom guarantees that every individual operation completes after a bounded number of its own steps under the assumed model. This is stronger than lock-freedom.

Parallel and Distributed Computing MCQs — Set 3 (Questions 101–150)

Choose an option and reveal the correct answer and explanation.

Question 101. What components make up a distributed system?

  1. Independent computers coordinating over communication links
  2. Only one processor core
  3. A single sequential algorithm without messages
  4. Only a disk array
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Independent computers coordinating over communication links

A distributed system comprises independent computers that coordinate by exchanging messages. Each machine has its own state, so network delays and failures must be considered.

Question 102. What is a distributed-system partial failure?

  1. Every component always fails together
  2. Some components fail while others remain operational
  3. Only CPU arithmetic fails
  4. The entire internet is always down
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Some components fail while others remain operational

A partial failure leaves some nodes or links unavailable while other components continue running. This makes a global view of system health difficult.

Question 103. What does a network partition do?

  1. Only split a disk table
  2. Only change CPU frequencies
  3. Disrupt communication between groups of nodes
  4. Only delete log files
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Disrupt communication between groups of nodes

A partition prevents some groups of nodes from communicating reliably with others. The nodes may still be functioning locally despite losing contact.

Question 104. Why are timeouts imperfect failure detectors?

  1. Every timeout proves hardware failure
  2. Networks have fixed zero delay
  3. No messages can be lost
  4. Delay can resemble a failed or unreachable peer
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Delay can resemble a failed or unreachable peer

Timeouts detect lack of a timely reply, not the reason for it. Congestion, scheduling delays and node failures can look identical to an observer.

Question 105. What is a heartbeat message?

  1. Periodic signal indicating a node or service is responsive
  2. Only a database backup
  3. A static encryption key
  4. A CPU register
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Periodic signal indicating a node or service is responsive

Heartbeats are periodic messages or signals used to check responsiveness. Missing heartbeats raise suspicion but alone cannot definitively prove a crash.

Question 106. What is a logical clock?

  1. Only a wall-mounted clock
  2. An ordering mechanism based on events rather than exact physical time
  3. A CPU clock oscillator
  4. A clock that always shows UTC
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. An ordering mechanism based on events rather than exact physical time

Logical clocks assign event-order information without depending on synchronized wall clocks. They help reason about causality in asynchronous systems.

Question 107. Which relations are included in Lamport’s happened-before relation?

  1. Only equal timestamps
  2. Only physical proximity
  3. Program order and message send-before-receive relations and their transitive consequences
  4. Only events on one server
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Program order and message send-before-receive relations and their transitive consequences

The happened-before relation includes event order within a process, sending a message before its reception, and transitivity. It defines a partial order.

Question 108. What does a Lamport clock guarantee for causally related events a before b?

  1. All lower timestamps imply causality
  2. All events receive unique real-world times
  3. Clocks never need updates
  4. Timestamp of a is less than timestamp of b
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Timestamp of a is less than timestamp of b

Lamport clocks satisfy a → b implies L(a) < L(b), provided clock-update rules are followed. The implication does not generally hold in reverse.

Question 109. Do Lamport timestamp inequalities alone prove causality?

  1. No
  2. Yes for every pair
  3. Only if both events are on same server always
  4. Only for events with equal timestamps
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. No

An inequality L(a) < L(b) is not proof that event a caused event b. Concurrent events can receive different Lamport timestamps.

Question 110. What advantage do vector clocks offer?

  1. They always need one integer only
  2. They can identify causal order and concurrency for represented processes
  3. They directly synchronize physical clocks
  4. They replace message transport
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. They can identify causal order and concurrency for represented processes

Vector timestamps store information about events observed from multiple processes. Componentwise comparison can distinguish causal precedence from concurrency.

Question 111. Two vector timestamps are concurrent when?

  1. They are identical
  2. Their scalar sums differ
  3. Neither is componentwise less than or equal to the other
  4. They are from different machines necessarily
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Neither is componentwise less than or equal to the other

Two vector timestamps are incomparable when neither vector is componentwise at most the other. Under the standard vector-clock model, the corresponding events are concurrent.

Question 112. What does a distributed snapshot aim to capture?

  1. Only the fastest node
  2. Only current CPU temperature
  3. Only a single SQL row
  4. A consistent global state of nodes and communication channels
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. A consistent global state of nodes and communication channels

A distributed snapshot records process states along with relevant messages in transit. It aims to describe a consistent global cut rather than a single perfectly synchronized instant.

Question 113. A consistent cut must not?

  1. Include a receive event without its causally preceding send event
  2. Contain multiple processes
  3. Contain messages in transit
  4. Include local states
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Include a receive event without its causally preceding send event

If a snapshot contains a message receipt, it must also contain the preceding send. Otherwise the recorded global state violates causal consistency.

Question 114. Chandy-Lamport snapshots assume in their classic algorithm?

  1. All processes share physical RAM
  2. Reliable FIFO channels and a suitable marker protocol
  3. Every process crashes during snapshot
  4. Zero network latency
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Reliable FIFO channels and a suitable marker protocol

The classical Chandy–Lamport algorithm uses marker messages on reliable FIFO channels. These assumptions allow each process to record in-transit messages consistently.

Question 115. An event is concurrent with another when?

  1. They always have equal wall-clock timestamps
  2. They must occur on different continents
  3. Neither happened before the other
  4. Both events belong to the same thread
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Neither happened before the other

Two events are concurrent when neither is causally before the other. Their ordering in physical time does not necessarily establish a causal relation.

Question 116. What is the goal of distributed consensus?

  1. Only identical CPU clock rates
  2. Only file compression
  3. Only a single process reading RAM
  4. Agreement on a decision despite specified failure conditions
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Agreement on a decision despite specified failure conditions

Consensus requires processes to select an agreed decision while satisfying defined safety and liveness properties. The guarantees depend on the failure model.

Question 117. What is validity in a basic consensus formulation?

  1. Decided values must satisfy the proposal validity condition
  2. Every network response has zero latency
  3. All nodes always decide instantly
  4. Processes never crash
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Decided values must satisfy the proposal validity condition

Validity restricts the values that may be chosen, typically linking decisions to permitted proposals. Exact formulations depend on the consensus protocol.

Question 118. What is agreement in consensus?

  1. All participants send identical message sizes
  2. Correct participants must not decide different values
  3. All clocks match exactly
  4. Only one node participates
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Correct participants must not decide different values

Agreement ensures that correct participants do not decide conflicting values. It is a safety requirement that prevents diverging decisions.

Question 119. What is termination in consensus?

  1. Every value is always accepted
  2. Every process makes exactly one network call
  3. Every correct participant eventually decides under the model’s assumptions
  4. All participants use the same CPU
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Every correct participant eventually decides under the model’s assumptions

Termination is a liveness condition: under the protocol’s assumptions, each correct participant eventually reaches a decision.

Question 120. Why is unrestricted deterministic consensus impossible in a fully asynchronous system with even one possible crash?

  1. Because binary values cannot be sent
  2. Because TCP does not exist
  3. Because clocks cannot count
  4. The FLP impossibility result
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. The FLP impossibility result

The FLP result shows that deterministic consensus cannot guarantee termination in a fully asynchronous message-passing system if even one process may crash. It does not prohibit consensus with extra assumptions.

Question 121. What is Paxos primarily used for?

  1. Fault-tolerant distributed consensus
  2. Compiling source programs
  3. GPU vectorization
  4. Only disk compression
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Fault-tolerant distributed consensus

Paxos is a family of protocols for agreeing on values despite crash faults under appropriate assumptions. Its safety relies on intersecting quorums.

Question 122. Which mechanisms does Raft use for consensus?

  1. Only shared CPU registers
  2. Leader-based replicated logs and elections
  3. No network messages
  4. Only a single permanent processor
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Leader-based replicated logs and elections

Raft uses elected leaders to coordinate replicated log entries. Terms, elections and commitment rules help replicas agree on a consistent log.

Question 123. What constitutes a majority in a five-voter consensus group?

  1. At least two voters
  2. Exactly five voters always
  3. At least three voters
  4. One voter
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. At least three voters

More than half of five voters means at least three. Requiring three votes prevents two disjoint groups from each forming a majority.

Question 124. Why do majority quorums intersect?

  1. Their members never overlap
  2. They require all nodes to be active
  3. Each quorum contains one node only
  4. Any two majorities share at least one member
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Any two majorities share at least one member

Any two strict majorities overlap: each contains more than half the group. Shared members help carry information between decisions, subject to protocol rules.

Question 125. What is split brain in a replicated system?

  1. Multiple disconnected groups act as authoritative leaders
  2. A CPU executes two pipelines
  3. A database has two tables
  4. A disk has two partitions
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Multiple disconnected groups act as authoritative leaders

Split brain occurs when competing partitions or nodes each act as primary. Without safeguards, both sides might accept incompatible updates.

Question 126. A fencing token is useful because?

  1. It increases clock frequency
  2. A resource can reject writes from an outdated former leader
  3. It compresses logs
  4. It removes the need for network partitions
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. A resource can reject writes from an outdated former leader

An increasing fencing token distinguishes a current leader from an obsolete one. Storage can reject requests carrying an older token.

Question 127. What is leader election?

  1. Sorting records by key
  2. Selecting a cache victim
  3. Selecting a node to coordinate a replicated group
  4. Only finding the fastest CPU
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Selecting a node to coordinate a replicated group

Leader election selects a coordinator for a period or term. Correct protocols also constrain when a leader may act to prevent conflicting authority.

Question 128. What is log replication?

  1. Only rotating log files on one disk
  2. Only backing up compiler warnings
  3. A method of disk striping
  4. Copying ordered state-changing entries among replicas
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Copying ordered state-changing entries among replicas

Log replication copies ordered state-changing commands to multiple nodes. Applying the same committed sequence lets replicas maintain consistent state.

Question 129. What does a replicated state machine require?

  1. Deterministic processing of the same ordered commands under its model
  2. Every node to use a different command order
  3. No state changes
  4. Only one client forever
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Deterministic processing of the same ordered commands under its model

Replicas of a state machine must execute the same ordered commands deterministically, assuming equivalent initial states. Otherwise their states may diverge.

Question 130. What is a Byzantine fault?

  1. Only a clean crash-stop failure
  2. A component may behave arbitrarily including sending conflicting information
  3. Only a full disk
  4. Only packet delay with correct behavior
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. A component may behave arbitrarily including sending conflicting information

Byzantine faults allow arbitrary or inconsistent behavior, including sending different messages to different peers. They are stronger than simple crash faults.

Question 131. What does a crash-stop fault mean?

  1. A process always sends contradictory messages
  2. A process remains responsive forever
  3. A process halts and takes no further steps
  4. Only data corruption
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. A process halts and takes no further steps

In the crash-stop model, a failed process halts permanently and performs no later steps. Protocols must tolerate missing responses.

Question 132. What does a crash-recovery model allow?

  1. Every crash permanently destroys the node
  2. No stable storage
  3. Only Byzantine behavior
  4. A failed process to restart potentially using durable state
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. A failed process to restart potentially using durable state

Crash-recovery protocols allow a node to restart after failing. Durable state is often necessary to avoid violating safety after recovery.

Question 133. Why is stable storage important in distributed protocols?

  1. Some state must survive crashes for safety or recovery
  2. It makes network delays disappear
  3. It guarantees no software defects
  4. It replaces all communication
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Some state must survive crashes for safety or recovery

Persistent storage preserves essential protocol state across crashes, such as terms or acknowledged log entries. Without it, a reboot may erase commitments.

Question 134. What is replication in a distributed system?

  1. Always dividing data into disjoint shards
  2. Maintaining copies of data or services across nodes
  3. Only executing code in SIMD
  4. Only network routing
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Maintaining copies of data or services across nodes

Replication keeps additional copies of data or services on separate machines. It may improve availability and fault tolerance but introduces consistency challenges.

Question 135. What does replication lag mean?

  1. Only CPU scheduling latency
  2. Only disk capacity
  3. Delay before a follower reflects leader updates
  4. Only instruction count
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Delay before a follower reflects leader updates

Replication lag is the delay before a follower has incorporated updates already accepted elsewhere. Reads from lagging followers can return older values.

Question 136. What characterizes synchronous replication?

  1. Never waits for other replicas
  2. Only updates replicas once daily
  3. Always has zero latency
  4. Acknowledges after required copies confirm the update
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Acknowledges after required copies confirm the update

Under synchronous replication, a write is acknowledged only after the required replicas confirm the operation. The required replica count depends on the policy.

Question 137. What characterizes asynchronous replication?

  1. May acknowledge a write before followers have copied it
  2. Requires all copies to be immediately current
  3. Never sends updates
  4. Requires no networking
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. May acknowledge a write before followers have copied it

Asynchronous replication can acknowledge a write before copies have reached all followers. This can improve latency but may allow stale replicas or lost recent updates on failure.

Question 138. What is eventual consistency?

  1. Every read observes the newest value instantly
  2. Replicas converge after updates stop under suitable conditions
  3. All updates must happen on one CPU
  4. No divergence can exist
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Replicas converge after updates stop under suitable conditions

Eventual consistency permits temporary disagreement among replicas. If updates stop and communication and reconciliation succeed, replicas are expected to converge.

Question 139. What is linearizability?

  1. Every system is sequential
  2. Every read is an uncommitted value
  3. Operations appear atomic respecting real-time precedence
  4. Only one node participates
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Operations appear atomic respecting real-time precedence

Linearizable operations appear to take effect atomically at points between invocation and response, while respecting observed real-time precedence.

Question 140. What is serializability?

  1. All operations must meet physical-clock order
  2. Every message is sequential
  3. Only a single table exists
  4. Concurrent transactions are equivalent to some serial transaction order
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Concurrent transactions are equivalent to some serial transaction order

Serializability means concurrent transactions have an outcome equivalent to a serial ordering. It does not by itself impose real-time ordering.

Question 141. Can serializability hold without linearizability?

  1. Yes
  2. No
  3. Only if the transaction count is one
  4. Only if every update fails
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Yes

Yes. A schedule may be equivalent to a serial transaction order without respecting real-time precedence. Thus serializability alone does not imply linearizability.

Question 142. What does CAP availability require?

  1. Every response contains latest data
  2. Requests to nonfailed nodes eventually receive responses
  3. Every response takes one millisecond
  4. Failures never occur
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Requests to nonfailed nodes eventually receive responses

CAP availability requires that each request received by a nonfailed node eventually gets a response. It does not mean that the response contains the newest global value.

Question 143. What guarantees cannot both be fully maintained during a partition under CAP?

  1. Only CPU speed and memory size
  2. Only disk redundancy and cache
  3. Linearizable consistency and complete availability
  4. Only SQL joins and indexes
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Linearizable consistency and complete availability

During a network partition, a system cannot guarantee both linearizable consistency and full availability for all relevant requests. CAP’s tradeoff is conditional on partitions.

Question 144. A CP-oriented system under partition may?

  1. Always answer every request
  2. Never elect leaders
  3. Only use one CPU
  4. Refuse or delay requests to preserve consistency
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Refuse or delay requests to preserve consistency

A CP design may reject or delay some operations when partitions prevent safe coordination. This preserves specified consistency guarantees at the cost of availability.

Question 145. An AP-oriented system under partition may?

  1. Serve requests with temporary replica divergence
  2. Guarantee linearizability on both isolated sides
  3. Prevent all updates
  4. Require physical shared memory
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Serve requests with temporary replica divergence

An AP design may continue serving operations in separated partitions and reconcile changes later. Temporary replica differences may be visible.

Question 146. What is a quorum threshold?

  1. Only a network packet length
  2. Required number of participating replicas for an operation
  3. Only a CPU core count
  4. Only a disk label
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Required number of participating replicas for an operation

A quorum is the minimum number of replicas required to participate in an operation. Its size affects fault tolerance and the possibility of intersecting read/write sets.

Question 147. What condition ensures overlap between read and write quorums of N replicas?

  1. R plus W less than N
  2. R equals zero
  3. R plus W greater than N
  4. W equals zero
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. R plus W greater than N

For N replicas, read quorum R and write quorum W have unavoidable overlap when R + W > N. Overlap is helpful but does not alone ensure correct version ordering.

Question 148. Does quorum overlap alone guarantee linearizability?

  1. Yes always
  2. Only with no message passing
  3. Only if every node is read-only
  4. No
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. No

No. Intersecting quorums do not automatically establish linearizability. A protocol also needs suitable rules for version selection, concurrency and failures.

Question 149. What is failover?

  1. Moving service responsibility to a healthy component after a failure
  2. Deleting all replicas
  3. Disabling the network
  4. Only changing a host name
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Moving service responsibility to a healthy component after a failure

Failover transfers responsibility from a failed or unavailable component to another healthy component. Detection and state recovery influence how quickly service resumes.

Question 150. What is fault tolerance?

  1. Eliminating all faults
  2. Continuing specified service behavior despite supported faults
  3. Only performing backups
  4. Guaranteeing unlimited performance
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Continuing specified service behavior despite supported faults

Fault tolerance means meeting specified service guarantees despite faults covered by a system’s failure model. The guarantee is never independent of assumptions about what can fail.

Parallel and Distributed Computing MCQs — Set 4 (Questions 151–200)

Choose an option and reveal the correct answer and explanation.

Question 151. What type of workload is especially well suited to GPU programming?

  1. Only single serial instruction chains
  2. Only file name lookup
  3. Many similar operations over large datasets
  4. Only network configuration
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Many similar operations over large datasets

GPUs are designed to execute many similar operations across large datasets with high throughput. Their many execution lanes are particularly useful when sufficient parallel work exists.

Question 152. What does CUDA provide?

  1. Only disk encryption
  2. A SQL query language
  3. A distributed clock protocol
  4. A platform and programming model for NVIDIA GPU computing
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. A platform and programming model for NVIDIA GPU computing

CUDA is NVIDIA’s GPU programming platform and model. It lets programmers launch parallel kernels and manage device memory using supported languages and libraries.

Question 153. What is a GPU kernel?

  1. A function executed over many device threads
  2. Only an operating-system boot program
  3. A disk scheduler
  4. A CPU interrupt signal
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Correct answer: A. A function executed over many device threads

A GPU kernel is device code launched over a grid of threads. Different threads generally process different elements of the workload.

Question 154. What is a CUDA thread block?

  1. Only a network subnet
  2. A group of GPU threads with defined coordination facilities
  3. An entire data center
  4. Only one CPU process
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Correct answer: B. A group of GPU threads with defined coordination facilities

A CUDA thread block groups threads that can coordinate through block-local synchronization and shared memory. Blocks can be scheduled independently onto suitable processing units.

Question 155. What is a GPU warp?

  1. Only a file buffer
  2. Only a CPU page table
  3. A group of threads scheduled together under SIMT execution
  4. An MPI communicator only
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Correct answer: C. A group of threads scheduled together under SIMT execution

A warp is a hardware scheduling group of GPU threads operating under a SIMT model. An instruction can apply to active lanes according to execution masks.

Question 156. What is warp divergence?

  1. All lanes use identical branches
  2. Every GPU memory access is sequential
  3. Only a compiler error
  4. Different lanes take different control paths causing masked execution
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Correct answer: D. Different lanes take different control paths causing masked execution

Warp divergence arises when lanes in one warp follow different control paths. The hardware may need to execute the paths separately, reducing efficiency.

Question 157. What does memory coalescing optimize?

  1. Combining nearby lane accesses into efficient memory transactions
  2. Only CPU clock frequency
  3. Only disk file size
  4. Only function naming
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Correct answer: A. Combining nearby lane accesses into efficient memory transactions

Coalescing combines suitable memory requests from neighboring lanes into efficient global-memory transactions. Adjacent, appropriately aligned accesses often need fewer transactions.

Question 158. What is shared memory on a GPU commonly used for?

  1. Permanent storage across power cycles
  2. Fast on-chip data reuse and cooperation within a block
  3. Only network messages
  4. Only operating-system files
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Correct answer: B. Fast on-chip data reuse and cooperation within a block

On-chip shared memory allows threads within a block to reuse data with less global-memory traffic. The program must synchronize accesses where needed.

Question 159. What is a GPU synchronization barrier within a block for?

  1. Automatically synchronizing all devices worldwide
  2. Always replacing atomic operations
  3. Ensuring participating threads reach a point before proceeding
  4. Only selecting a kernel
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Correct answer: C. Ensuring participating threads reach a point before proceeding

A block-level barrier prevents participating threads from proceeding until the required threads in that block have arrived. It is commonly used before reading data other threads wrote.

Question 160. What does arithmetic intensity measure?

  1. Only number of GPU threads
  2. Only CPU frequency
  3. Only storage capacity
  4. Computations per byte of data transfer
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Correct answer: D. Computations per byte of data transfer

Arithmetic intensity is the number of arithmetic operations per byte moved through a specified memory level. High intensity often favors compute-bound execution.

Question 161. What primarily limits the performance of a memory-bound GPU kernel?

  1. Memory service rate or latency
  2. Only compiler parsing
  3. Only floating point precision
  4. Only process rank
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Correct answer: A. Memory service rate or latency

A memory-bound kernel is limited mainly by memory bandwidth or latency rather than arithmetic throughput. Reducing data movement can help more than adding arithmetic units.

Question 162. What primarily limits the performance of a compute-bound GPU kernel?

  1. Only network packet headers
  2. Arithmetic execution throughput
  3. Only disk capacity
  4. Only source line count
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Correct answer: B. Arithmetic execution throughput

A compute-bound kernel is mainly limited by the arithmetic processing capacity. Optimizing instruction throughput and utilization may improve its speed.

Question 163. The roofline model relates performance to?

  1. Only operating-system version
  2. Only thread names
  3. Compute peak memory bandwidth and arithmetic intensity
  4. Only instruction-set acronym
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Correct answer: C. Compute peak memory bandwidth and arithmetic intensity

The roofline model estimates attainable performance using peak compute throughput, memory bandwidth and arithmetic intensity. Performance lies below the limiting roof.

Question 164. What is GPU occupancy?

  1. Only the GPU temperature
  2. Only number of graphics windows
  3. Only disk queue size
  4. Resident active warps or threads relative to hardware capacity limits
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Correct answer: D. Resident active warps or threads relative to hardware capacity limits

Occupancy describes how many warps or threads are resident relative to the hardware limit. It can help hide latency, although maximum occupancy does not guarantee maximum speed.

Question 165. What is heterogeneous computing?

  1. Combining different processor types such as CPUs and accelerators
  2. Only using identical processors
  3. Only one sequential core
  4. Only running source compilers
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Correct answer: A. Combining different processor types such as CPUs and accelerators

Heterogeneous systems combine processors with different capabilities, such as CPUs and GPUs. Tasks can be placed on the device best suited to each workload.

Question 166. What is a computer cluster?

  1. Only one memory chip
  2. A group of networked computers cooperating on workloads or services
  3. Only a single-thread program
  4. A single disk partition
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Correct answer: B. A group of networked computers cooperating on workloads or services

A cluster consists of connected computers that cooperate on tasks or services. It can pool processing, storage and networking resources.

Question 167. What is a compute node?

  1. Only a cache line
  2. Only an application variable
  3. A participating machine or execution host in a cluster
  4. Only a message tag
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Correct answer: C. A participating machine or execution host in a cluster

A compute node supplies CPUs, memory and possibly accelerators to execute cluster jobs. Multiple nodes communicate over the cluster network.

Question 168. What is a job scheduler in an HPC cluster?

  1. Only a compiler register allocator
  2. Only a cache replacement policy
  3. Only an assembler
  4. A service allocating queued workloads to available resources
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Correct answer: D. A service allocating queued workloads to available resources

An HPC job scheduler queues submitted workloads and allocates available processors, memory and nodes. Scheduling policies also address fairness and resource constraints.

Question 169. What is a batch job?

  1. Work submitted for scheduled execution without continuous user interaction
  2. Only a keyboard event
  3. Only a CPU cache write
  4. Only a network error
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Correct answer: A. Work submitted for scheduled execution without continuous user interaction

A batch job runs under a scheduling system without requiring continuous interactive control. Users submit requests and collect results after execution.

Question 170. What is a job checkpoint?

  1. Only a completed source code listing
  2. A saved execution state supporting restart after interruption
  3. Only a CPU clock setting
  4. Only a permanent network connection
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Correct answer: B. A saved execution state supporting restart after interruption

A checkpoint stores sufficient execution state to restart an interrupted computation. Regular checkpoints trade storage overhead for less lost work after failure.

Question 171. What is cloud elasticity?

  1. Guaranteed zero latency
  2. Only fixed server capacity
  3. Ability to increase or decrease provisioned resources in response to demand
  4. Permanent maximum allocation
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Correct answer: C. Ability to increase or decrease provisioned resources in response to demand

Elasticity means provisioning additional resources when demand rises and reducing them when it falls. It can improve responsiveness and control unnecessary capacity costs.

Question 172. What is horizontal scaling?

  1. Only replacing a CPU with a faster one
  2. Only increasing disk partition size
  3. Only adding variables to a program
  4. Adding more processing instances or nodes
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Correct answer: D. Adding more processing instances or nodes

Horizontal scaling adds more service instances or machines. It distributes demand across nodes rather than making one machine larger.

Question 173. What is vertical scaling?

  1. Adding capacity to an existing node or instance
  2. Adding more separate nodes
  3. Only replicating every database
  4. Only partitioning data
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Correct answer: A. Adding capacity to an existing node or instance

Vertical scaling increases the capacity of an existing machine, for example by adding CPU or memory. Hardware and service limits may restrict how far it can scale.

Question 174. What is a virtual machine?

  1. Only a file compression format
  2. A software-defined execution environment emulating or exposing machine resources
  3. Only a programming-language token
  4. Only a network checksum
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Correct answer: B. A software-defined execution environment emulating or exposing machine resources

A virtual machine provides an isolated guest environment with virtualized computing resources. A hypervisor typically manages underlying hardware sharing.

Question 175. What is a container?

  1. A full independent physical server always
  2. Only a hard-drive backup
  3. An isolated application environment sharing the host kernel under common OS container models
  4. Only an encrypted database
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Correct answer: C. An isolated application environment sharing the host kernel under common OS container models

A container packages an application and its dependencies into an isolated process environment. Most common OS containers share the host kernel rather than running a separate guest kernel.

Question 176. What is orchestration for container workloads?

  1. Only changing application colors
  2. Only tokenizing code
  3. Only disk formatting
  4. Automating deployment placement scaling and recovery
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Correct answer: D. Automating deployment placement scaling and recovery

Orchestration automates placing, starting, restarting and scaling containerized services. It helps maintain the desired running state despite changes or failures.

Question 177. What is a microservice?

  1. A separately deployable service focused on a bounded function
  2. Always one line of code
  3. Only a CPU thread
  4. Only a database row
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Correct answer: A. A separately deployable service focused on a bounded function

A microservice is an independently deployable service focused on a bounded responsibility. Services communicate through APIs or messages and require coordination across the network.

Question 178. What is service discovery?

  1. Only looking up a source file
  2. Locating current network endpoints for services
  3. Only searching an array
  4. Only identifying CPU registers
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Correct answer: B. Locating current network endpoints for services

Service discovery identifies the current address of a service instance. It is important when instances are frequently created, moved or replaced.

Question 179. What is a load balancer?

  1. Only increasing network packet size
  2. Only encrypting RAM
  3. A component distributing incoming work among service instances
  4. Only performing CPU instruction scheduling
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Correct answer: C. A component distributing incoming work among service instances

A load balancer directs incoming requests among service instances according to a policy. This can reduce hotspots and improve resilience when healthy instances are available.

Question 180. What is autoscaling?

  1. Always keeping one instance
  2. Only copying storage snapshots
  3. Only reassigning user names
  4. Automatically changing resource counts or capacity based on configured signals
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Correct answer: D. Automatically changing resource counts or capacity based on configured signals

Autoscaling changes the number or size of resources automatically based on predefined signals such as CPU use, queue depth or request rate.

Question 181. What does the map phase produce in MapReduce?

  1. Produces intermediate key-value pairs from input records
  2. Only combines all final values
  3. Only stores a checkpoint
  4. Only assigns machine registers
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Correct answer: A. Produces intermediate key-value pairs from input records

In MapReduce, map workers transform input records into intermediate key-value pairs. Independent records can often be mapped in parallel.

Question 182. What happens during the shuffle phase of MapReduce?

  1. Only parses source code
  2. Groups and transfers intermediate values by key to reducers
  3. Only increases worker frequency
  4. Only performs final rendering
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Correct answer: B. Groups and transfers intermediate values by key to reducers

Shuffle groups intermediate values by key and transfers them to the relevant reducers. Network traffic and skew during this phase can become major bottlenecks.

Question 183. What does the reduce phase do in MapReduce?

  1. Only creates map outputs
  2. Only allocates message tags
  3. Aggregates values for each key or key group
  4. Only broadcasts all data unchanged
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Correct answer: C. Aggregates values for each key or key group

Reduce workers process grouped intermediate values to produce aggregated outputs. For example, a word-count reducer sums counts for one word.

Question 184. Why can data locality matter in distributed processing?

  1. It always removes disk I/O
  2. It eliminates all synchronization
  3. It makes every algorithm constant time
  4. Processing near data can reduce costly network transfers
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Correct answer: D. Processing near data can reduce costly network transfers

Processing data near its storage location can avoid transferring large datasets across the network. The benefit depends on workload and resource availability.

Question 185. What is a distributed file system?

  1. A file-storage system spanning nodes while offering coordinated access
  2. Only a local directory on one CPU
  3. Only an encrypted USB drive
  4. Only a compiler input
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Correct answer: A. A file-storage system spanning nodes while offering coordinated access

A distributed file system coordinates storage across several machines while presenting a file-oriented interface. Data blocks or chunks may be spread and replicated for resilience.

Question 186. What is data replication in distributed storage?

  1. Always splitting data into exclusive shards
  2. Maintaining multiple copies of data for availability or access
  3. Only storing metadata
  4. Only compressing network packets
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Correct answer: B. Maintaining multiple copies of data for availability or access

Replication stores several copies of data on different nodes. Copies improve redundancy and availability but require consistency and update-management policies.

Question 187. What is erasure coding?

  1. Only encrypting files with a password
  2. Only duplicating every fragment identically
  3. Encoding data into fragments so loss of some fragments can be tolerated
  4. Only sorting disk blocks
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Correct answer: C. Encoding data into fragments so loss of some fragments can be tolerated

Erasure codes transform data into redundant encoded fragments so the original can be recovered despite some fragments being missing. They can use less space than full replication.

Question 188. What is sharding in distributed databases?

  1. Keeping identical full copies at all nodes
  2. Only changing column types
  3. Only running backups
  4. Partitioning records across different storage nodes
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Correct answer: D. Partitioning records across different storage nodes

Sharding divides a dataset into partitions held by different nodes. Effective shard keys distribute load and support efficient queries.

Question 189. What is a hot partition?

  1. A partition receiving disproportionately high load
  2. Only a disk with high temperature
  3. Always a deleted shard
  4. Only an empty table
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Correct answer: A. A partition receiving disproportionately high load

A hot partition receives substantially more requests or data than others. Its overloaded resources may determine the overall system throughput.

Question 190. What is eventual consistency?

  1. Every request returns the newest value instantly
  2. Replicas converge after updates cease under suitable reliability assumptions
  3. No replicas can disagree
  4. All writes require a central CPU
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Correct answer: B. Replicas converge after updates cease under suitable reliability assumptions

Eventual consistency permits replicas to differ temporarily. If writes cease and updates propagate under appropriate conditions, their states converge.

Question 191. What is an idempotent request?

  1. Every retry changes state again
  2. It never produces output
  3. Repeating it has the same intended effect as applying it once
  4. It needs only one network packet
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Correct answer: C. Repeating it has the same intended effect as applying it once

An idempotent operation has the same intended effect when repeated as when applied once. This is useful when network retries may duplicate requests.

Question 192. What does an idempotency key help prevent?

  1. Every network delay
  2. All node failures
  3. Only cache invalidations
  4. Duplicate effects from repeated logical requests
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Correct answer: D. Duplicate effects from repeated logical requests

An idempotency key identifies repeated attempts of one logical request. A service can use the key to avoid performing a payment or other side effect twice.

Question 193. What is distributed tracing?

  1. Following a request across multiple services using correlated trace context
  2. Only reading CPU instruction traces
  3. Only analyzing one local stack
  4. Only monitoring disk temperature
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Correct answer: A. Following a request across multiple services using correlated trace context

Distributed tracing propagates correlated trace identifiers across service calls. The recorded spans reveal how a single request flows through a multi-service system.

Question 194. What is a tail-latency metric?

  1. Only average CPU frequency
  2. A high-percentile response time showing slowest portions of request distribution
  3. Only disk capacity
  4. Only total thread count
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Correct answer: B. A high-percentile response time showing slowest portions of request distribution

Tail latency describes slow high-percentile responses, such as the 99th percentile. It highlights delays that averages can conceal.

Question 195. What is a straggler task?

  1. Always the first completed task
  2. Only a failed compiler
  3. An unusually slow task delaying overall parallel completion
  4. Only a high-priority thread
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Correct answer: C. An unusually slow task delaying overall parallel completion

A straggler is a task that runs much slower than its peers. A distributed job may have to wait for that one task to finish before completing.

Question 196. What is speculative duplicate execution for stragglers?

  1. Always deleting slow tasks immediately
  2. Only lowering clock speed
  3. Only retrying every successful task
  4. Running a backup copy of slow work and taking an acceptable result
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Correct answer: D. Running a backup copy of slow work and taking an acceptable result

Speculative execution launches another copy of unusually slow work. The system can accept a valid successful result and cancel unnecessary copies, trading resources for lower tail latency.

Question 197. What is oversubscription of CPU resources?

  1. Scheduling more runnable threads than available hardware execution slots
  2. Always using one thread per core
  3. Only adding memory capacity
  4. Only dividing a database
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Correct answer: A. Scheduling more runnable threads than available hardware execution slots

CPU oversubscription occurs when runnable threads exceed available execution slots. Competition can cause context switching and scheduling delays.

Question 198. What is parallel I/O?

  1. Only one process reads one byte
  2. Multiple workers or devices perform storage operations concurrently
  3. Only CPU arithmetic
  4. Only serialization of all writes
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Correct answer: B. Multiple workers or devices perform storage operations concurrently

Parallel I/O lets multiple workers access storage concurrently. When the storage system supports it, aggregate throughput can exceed that of serial transfers.

Question 199. What is a performance profiler?

  1. Only a compiler grammar file
  2. Only a database key
  3. A tool measuring where execution time or resources are consumed
  4. Only an authorization token
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Correct answer: C. A tool measuring where execution time or resources are consumed

A profiler measures where a program spends execution time or resources, such as CPU cycles or memory. Profiling evidence helps prioritize meaningful optimizations.

Question 200. What is an end-to-end performance optimization goal?

  1. Only maximize thread count
  2. Only minimize source length
  3. Only choose the fastest individual instruction
  4. Improve total workload outcome rather than one isolated component metric
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Correct answer: D. Improve total workload outcome rather than one isolated component metric

End-to-end optimization targets overall application outcomes instead of isolated component metrics. Improving one stage is not useful if it worsens total latency or throughput.