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Information Security

Information Security

Introduction

Learn the core principles and techniques used to protect information, systems and users.

Topic-Wise Overview

Security Foundations

Security principles, threats and security mechanisms

Cryptography and Identity

Encryption, hash functions, signatures, keys, authentication and access control

Software and Data Security

Vulnerabilities, malware and database security

Network Defences

Firewalls, intrusion detection and secure network design

Governance

Risk assessment, security policy, privacy, law and ethics

Study Guidance

Study the complete collection of 200 Information Security MCQs below, organized into four sets of 50. Each question provides four options, the correct answer and an explanation. Topics include security foundations, cryptography, authentication, vulnerabilities, malware, risk management, incident response, privacy, recovery and secure web applications.

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Information Security MCQs — Set 1 (Questions 1–50)

Choose an option and reveal the correct answer with an explanation.

Question 1. CIA confidentiality means?

  1. Preventing unauthorized disclosure of information
  2. Guaranteeing uninterrupted uptime
  3. Ensuring files are always compressed
  4. Eliminating all software defects
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Preventing unauthorized disclosure of information

Confidentiality restricts information access to authorized parties.

Question 2. CIA integrity means?

  1. Keeping every service online
  2. Protecting information from unauthorized modification
  3. Making all data publicly readable
  4. Using only encryption
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Protecting information from unauthorized modification

Integrity maintains correctness and trustworthiness of data.

Question 3. CIA availability means?

  1. Keeping data permanently secret from everyone
  2. Guaranteeing no programming errors
  3. Ensuring authorized access to services when needed
  4. Using symmetric keys only
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Ensuring authorized access to services when needed

Availability concerns timely accessible service.

Question 4. An information asset is?

  1. Only physical computers
  2. Only passwords
  3. Only source code
  4. Something valuable to an organization that needs protection
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Something valuable to an organization that needs protection

Information, systems and people-related resources may all be assets.

Question 5. A threat is?

  1. A potential cause of harm to an asset
  2. A vulnerability that has already been fixed
  3. An encryption method
  4. A backup type
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. A potential cause of harm to an asset

Threats describe possible harmful events.

Question 6. A vulnerability is?

  1. Always an active attack
  2. A weakness that could be exploited
  3. A security policy
  4. A cryptographic key
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. A weakness that could be exploited

Vulnerabilities create opportunities for threats.

Question 7. Risk is commonly evaluated using?

  1. Only the number of employees
  2. Only CPU speed
  3. Likelihood and impact
  4. Only file size
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Likelihood and impact

Security risks combine probability and consequences.

Question 8. An attack surface consists of?

  1. Only network cables
  2. Only user manuals
  3. Only encrypted files
  4. Exposed points where an attacker might interact with a system
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Exposed points where an attacker might interact with a system

Every reachable interface can contribute to exposure.

Question 9. The least-privilege principle says?

  1. Grant only permissions necessary for a task
  2. Grant everyone administrator rights
  3. Eliminate all authentication
  4. Reuse all administrator passwords
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Grant only permissions necessary for a task

Reduced authority limits damage from misuse.

Question 10. Defense in depth means?

  1. Relying on one firewall only
  2. Using multiple complementary security controls
  3. Avoiding backups
  4. Storing every key together
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Using multiple complementary security controls

Layered safeguards help when one control fails.

Question 11. Authentication verifies?

  1. The amount of disk space
  2. Whether a query is fast
  3. The claimed identity of a user or entity
  4. The physical cable type
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. The claimed identity of a user or entity

Authentication establishes identity.

Question 12. Authorization determines?

  1. Whether a username exists only
  2. The network latency
  3. The file checksum only
  4. Actions an identity is allowed to perform
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Actions an identity is allowed to perform

Authorization applies permissions after or alongside identity determination.

Question 13. Accounting in AAA is used for?

  1. Recording activity and resource use
  2. Encrypting all databases
  3. Creating access tokens
  4. Choosing passwords
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Recording activity and resource use

Accounting supports usage tracking and audit.

Question 14. Multi-factor authentication combines?

  1. Two copies of the same password
  2. Independent categories of authentication factors
  3. Two usernames
  4. Only security questions
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Independent categories of authentication factors

Different factor categories improve resistance to compromise.

Question 15. Which example is a possession factor?

  1. Memorized PIN
  2. Favorite color
  3. Hardware security token
  4. Biometric fingerprint
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Hardware security token

Possession means something the user has.

Question 16. A memorized password is which factor?

  1. Possession
  2. Inherence
  3. Location only
  4. Knowledge
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Knowledge

A password is something the user knows.

Question 17. A fingerprint is which factor?

  1. Inherence
  2. Knowledge
  3. Possession
  4. A security role
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Inherence

Biometrics represent something the user is.

Question 18. A phishing attack commonly seeks to?

  1. Repair a database index
  2. Trick people into revealing information or taking harmful actions
  3. Strengthen encryption
  4. Restore backups
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Trick people into revealing information or taking harmful actions

Deceptive messages exploit human trust.

Question 19. Spear phishing targets?

  1. Only random IP addresses
  2. Only hardware systems
  3. A specific person or group with tailored deception
  4. Only public web pages
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. A specific person or group with tailored deception

Personalization can make phishing attempts more convincing.

Question 20. Social engineering attacks exploit?

  1. Only mathematical weaknesses in AES
  2. Only faulty hard drives
  3. Only electrical noise
  4. Human behavior and trust
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Human behavior and trust

Attackers manipulate people into unsafe actions.

Question 21. A password manager helps users?

  1. Generate and store distinct strong passwords
  2. Guarantee zero account compromise
  3. Disable all login checks
  4. Replace operating systems
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Generate and store distinct strong passwords

Managers make unique credentials easier to maintain.

Question 22. A password hash should generally be created with?

  1. Plain SHA-256 alone without cost controls
  2. A dedicated salted password-hashing scheme
  3. Reversible Base64 encoding
  4. A fixed shared plaintext key
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. A dedicated salted password-hashing scheme

Slow password KDFs such as Argon2id resist large-scale guessing.

Question 23. Why use a unique salt for password hashing?

  1. To make passwords reversible
  2. To replace encryption
  3. To prevent identical passwords from automatically producing identical stored hashes
  4. To avoid authentication
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. To prevent identical passwords from automatically producing identical stored hashes

Unique salts defeat precomputed tables and reveal less equality information.

Question 24. A brute-force password attack attempts?

  1. Only physical theft
  2. Only email delivery
  3. Only file compression
  4. Many candidate passwords until one succeeds
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Many candidate passwords until one succeeds

Guessing attacks test credentials at scale.

Question 25. Rate limiting on login attempts helps?

  1. Reduce automated guessing speed
  2. Guarantee password secrecy
  3. Make encryption unnecessary
  4. Remove user accounts
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Reduce automated guessing speed

Limiting attempts increases the cost of guessing.

Question 26. Symmetric encryption uses?

  1. A different unrelated key per direction always
  2. The same secret key for encryption and decryption
  3. No key
  4. Only a public key
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. The same secret key for encryption and decryption

Symmetric schemes rely on a shared secret.

Question 27. Asymmetric cryptography relies on?

  1. Only a shared password
  2. A fixed checksum
  3. Related public and private keys
  4. No mathematical relationship between keys
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Related public and private keys

Public-key systems use key pairs.

Question 28. AES is mainly a?

  1. Password database
  2. Public-key signature algorithm
  3. Hash function only
  4. Symmetric block cipher
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Symmetric block cipher

Advanced Encryption Standard encrypts fixed-size blocks under a secret key.

Question 29. RSA is a family of?

  1. Public-key cryptographic algorithms
  2. Symmetric stream ciphers
  3. Only hashing schemes
  4. Disk partition formats
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Public-key cryptographic algorithms

RSA relies on public-private key operations.

Question 30. A cryptographic hash function maps messages to?

  1. The original plaintext with guaranteed reversibility
  2. Fixed-length digests for a selected algorithm
  3. Only a human-readable password
  4. Always unique strings for any possible input
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Fixed-length digests for a selected algorithm

Hashes compress arbitrary-length data into fixed-length outputs.

Question 31. Collision resistance makes it difficult to?

  1. Decrypt ciphertext without a key
  2. Generate random IVs
  3. Find two distinct inputs with the same digest
  4. Choose any password
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Find two distinct inputs with the same digest

Collisions mathematically exist but should be hard to find.

Question 32. Preimage resistance concerns difficulty of?

  1. Finding two inputs with the same hash
  2. Verifying a digital signature
  3. Generating network packets
  4. Finding an input for a specified hash digest
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Finding an input for a specified hash digest

Preimage resistance limits reversing a given digest.

Question 33. SHA-256 produces a digest of?

  1. 256 bits
  2. 128 bits
  3. 64 bits
  4. 512 bytes
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. 256 bits

SHA-256 outputs 256-bit values.

Question 34. A digital signature normally supports?

  1. Confidentiality by itself
  2. Integrity and origin authentication with a public verification key
  3. Disk defragmentation
  4. Removing all certificates
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Integrity and origin authentication with a public verification key

Valid signatures bind messages to a private signing key.

Question 35. Which key is commonly used to verify a public-key digital signature?

  1. The signer’s private key
  2. A user’s password
  3. The signer’s public key
  4. The server’s IP address
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. The signer’s public key

The public verification key checks signatures.

Question 36. A digital certificate commonly binds?

  1. Two database rows
  2. A username to a source-code line
  3. A MAC address to a hard drive
  4. An identity to a public key
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. An identity to a public key

Certificates support identity binding through digital signatures.

Question 37. A certificate authority typically?

  1. Signs certificates after applicable validation
  2. Chooses the user’s password
  3. Routes IP packets
  4. Compresses web pages
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Signs certificates after applicable validation

CAs issue certificates within a public key infrastructure.

Question 38. TLS primarily protects?

  1. All files on a disconnected disk automatically
  2. Communications through encryption and authentication
  3. CPU scheduling
  4. Every application from malware
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Communications through encryption and authentication

TLS provides authenticated protected channels.

Question 39. Certificate hostname validation checks?

  1. Only whether the certificate file is large
  2. The cable manufacturer
  3. Whether the certificate is valid for the requested hostname
  4. A database’s primary key
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Whether the certificate is valid for the requested hostname

Wrong-host certificates should not be trusted.

Question 40. Encryption at rest is aimed at?

  1. Securing all network communication
  2. Guaranteeing no insider misuse
  3. Providing automatic backups
  4. Protecting stored data from certain unauthorized storage access
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Protecting stored data from certain unauthorized storage access

At-rest encryption protects persisted data under relevant threat models.

Question 41. Encryption in transit protects?

  1. Data moving between communicating endpoints
  2. Only files never transmitted
  3. All software defects
  4. Only disk sectors
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Data moving between communicating endpoints

Transport encryption helps prevent interception or tampering.

Question 42. A message authentication code typically provides?

  1. Public-key confidentiality
  2. Integrity and authenticity under a shared secret key
  3. Automatic compression
  4. Anonymity in all contexts
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Integrity and authenticity under a shared secret key

MACs authenticate data for parties sharing a key.

Question 43. HMAC combines?

  1. A router and switch
  2. A certificate and a password only
  3. A cryptographic hash with a secret key
  4. Two random usernames
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. A cryptographic hash with a secret key

HMAC constructs a keyed message authentication code.

Question 44. A nonce is generally?

  1. A reusable master password
  2. An exact copy of plaintext
  3. Only a MAC address
  4. A value intended to be unique or used once in a specified context
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. A value intended to be unique or used once in a specified context

Nonces support freshness and help avoid replay.

Question 45. A replay attack involves?

  1. Reusing a previously captured valid message to gain an unintended effect
  2. Guessing every possible key
  3. Deleting backups
  4. Changing screen settings
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Reusing a previously captured valid message to gain an unintended effect

Freshness mechanisms help reject reused messages.

Question 46. Key rotation means?

  1. Reversing the order of message bytes
  2. Replacing cryptographic keys according to policy or need
  3. Sorting encrypted files
  4. Changing IP subnets
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Replacing cryptographic keys according to policy or need

Rotation limits exposure periods and supports response.

Question 47. Key management includes?

  1. Only choosing a font
  2. Only selecting network hardware
  3. Secure generation storage distribution and retirement of keys
  4. Only changing file names
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Secure generation storage distribution and retirement of keys

Cryptography depends on sound lifecycle handling.

Question 48. A secure random number generator should provide?

  1. Only consecutive integers
  2. Only system time values
  3. Guaranteed identical runs
  4. Unpredictable outputs suitable for security purposes
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Unpredictable outputs suitable for security purposes

Predictability undermines secret keys and nonces.

Question 49. A cryptographic IV is?

  1. An initialization value used by certain encryption modes
  2. A network port number
  3. An HTTP status code
  4. A username
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. An initialization value used by certain encryption modes

IV requirements vary by algorithm and encryption mode.

Question 50. Using the same key and nonce twice with AES-GCM can?

  1. Always improve performance safely
  2. Seriously undermine confidentiality and integrity guarantees
  3. Guarantee longer keys
  4. Make messages identical by design
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Seriously undermine confidentiality and integrity guarantees

GCM requires nonce uniqueness under a given key.

Information Security MCQs — Set 2 (Questions 51–100)

Choose an option and reveal the correct answer with an explanation.

Question 51. A firewall primarily?

  1. Creates encrypted backups
  2. Generates employee passwords
  3. Enforces rules about permitted network traffic
  4. Defragments hard disks
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Enforces rules about permitted network traffic

Firewalls filter packets or connections according to policy.

Question 52. A stateful firewall tracks?

  1. Only user names
  2. Only network cable lengths
  3. Only disk partitions
  4. Connection state when evaluating traffic
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Connection state when evaluating traffic

Connection tracking helps assess traffic in context.

Question 53. An IDS is primarily used to?

  1. Detect and report suspected intrusions
  2. Automatically repair all exploited files
  3. Replace authentication
  4. Guarantee no attacks
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Detect and report suspected intrusions

Intrusion detection monitors for suspicious activity.

Question 54. An IPS may additionally?

  1. Remove the need for encryption
  2. Block or prevent detected malicious traffic
  3. Assign DNS addresses
  4. Replace the router’s CPU
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Block or prevent detected malicious traffic

Intrusion prevention can intervene automatically.

Question 55. Network segmentation helps?

  1. Grant universal access
  2. Eliminate all switch ports
  3. Limit communication paths and contain compromise
  4. Disable logging
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Limit communication paths and contain compromise

Separating security zones reduces lateral movement.

Question 56. A VPN commonly provides?

  1. A guaranteed malware-free endpoint
  2. An automatic backup
  3. A replacement for all passwords
  4. A protected logical communication tunnel
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. A protected logical communication tunnel

VPNs tunnel traffic and can encrypt communications.

Question 57. IPsec is used to?

  1. Protect IP traffic with network-layer security mechanisms
  2. Compress images for web pages
  3. Allocate virtual machines
  4. Run database joins
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Protect IP traffic with network-layer security mechanisms

IPsec offers authentication and encryption capabilities.

Question 58. A DDoS attack aims to?

  1. Generate stronger keys
  2. Disrupt availability using traffic from multiple sources
  3. Install security patches
  4. Improve network throughput
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Disrupt availability using traffic from multiple sources

Distributed flooding can exhaust resources.

Question 59. A man-in-the-middle attack involves?

  1. Only deleting a local file
  2. Only forcing an update
  3. Intercepting or altering communications between parties
  4. Only changing screen colors
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Intercepting or altering communications between parties

An attacker inserts themself into a communication path.

Question 60. ARP spoofing can?

  1. Replace IPv6 routing
  2. Create file permissions
  3. Prevent all phishing
  4. Mislead local network hosts about IP-to-MAC mappings
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Mislead local network hosts about IP-to-MAC mappings

Forged ARP information can redirect traffic.

Question 61. Malware is?

  1. Software designed to cause harm or unwanted effects
  2. Any open-source software
  3. Only outdated software
  4. Only a false alarm
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Software designed to cause harm or unwanted effects

Malicious code can steal data or damage systems.

Question 62. A computer virus usually?

  1. Always spreads independently without a host
  2. Attaches to a host file or program and spreads when activated
  3. Only attacks networking hardware
  4. Cannot replicate
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Attaches to a host file or program and spreads when activated

Traditional viruses propagate by infecting host artifacts.

Question 63. A worm is distinguished by?

  1. Needing a user to copy each infected file always
  2. Being only a spam email
  3. Ability to self-propagate across systems or networks
  4. Always requiring a USB drive
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Ability to self-propagate across systems or networks

Worms can spread without attaching to another executable.

Question 64. Ransomware typically?

  1. Only increases processor speed
  2. Only improves storage compression
  3. Only performs backups
  4. Encrypts or blocks access to data and demands payment
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Encrypts or blocks access to data and demands payment

Ransomware seeks to extort victims by denying access.

Question 65. A Trojan program is?

  1. Malware disguised as legitimate or desirable software
  2. An automatic encryption standard
  3. A firewall rule
  4. A backup tape
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Malware disguised as legitimate or desirable software

Trojan deception induces execution of malicious code.

Question 66. A rootkit is designed to?

  1. Only provide firewall logging
  2. Conceal malicious presence and maintain privileged access
  3. Back up files
  4. Create user manuals
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Conceal malicious presence and maintain privileged access

Rootkits hide processes, files or activity.

Question 67. A botnet is?

  1. A type of symmetric cipher
  2. A database index
  3. A collection of compromised devices controlled for coordinated actions
  4. A secure coding standard
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. A collection of compromised devices controlled for coordinated actions

Botnets can be used for spam and DDoS attacks.

Question 68. An endpoint detection and response tool helps?

  1. Guarantee perfect safety
  2. Set all CPU voltages
  3. Replace operating systems
  4. Monitor endpoints and investigate suspicious behavior
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Monitor endpoints and investigate suspicious behavior

EDR collects endpoint telemetry and supports response.

Question 69. Signature-based detection can miss?

  1. New or modified malicious patterns not represented in signatures
  2. Every known sample by definition
  3. All benign files
  4. Only encrypted backups
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. New or modified malicious patterns not represented in signatures

Known signatures cannot cover every unseen threat.

Question 70. Behavior-based detection examines?

  1. Only exact file names
  2. Suspicious actions and activity patterns
  3. Only password length
  4. Only source file timestamps
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Suspicious actions and activity patterns

Behavioral systems look for malicious techniques or anomalies.

Question 71. An access control list (ACL) specifies?

  1. Only the user interface language
  2. Disk block size
  3. Permissions associated with an object for users or groups
  4. The packet’s IP TTL
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Permissions associated with an object for users or groups

ACLs define who can access objects and how.

Question 72. Role-based access control assigns permissions through?

  1. Only physical locations
  2. Only random tokens
  3. Only file hashes
  4. Roles associated with organizational functions
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Roles associated with organizational functions

RBAC connects users to roles and roles to permissions.

Question 73. Attribute-based access control uses?

  1. Policies based on subject object action and context attributes
  2. Only one hardcoded administrator account
  3. Only shared passwords
  4. Only network cable type
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Policies based on subject object action and context attributes

ABAC evaluates attributes and contextual conditions.

Question 74. Mandatory access control is characterized by?

  1. Object owners having unrestricted discretion always
  2. System-enforced access rules based on labels or classifications
  3. No access policy
  4. Only manual passwords
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. System-enforced access rules based on labels or classifications

MAC restricts access using centrally enforced security labels.

Question 75. Discretionary access control commonly allows?

  1. Every user to ignore permissions
  2. Only the kernel to view files
  3. Resource owners to influence access permissions
  4. No ownership concept
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Resource owners to influence access permissions

DAC permits authorized owners to control sharing.

Question 76. A security policy is?

  1. Only a network diagram
  2. Only a source file
  3. A temporary cache
  4. A documented set of required rules and expectations
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. A documented set of required rules and expectations

Policies establish organizational security direction.

Question 77. Security awareness training aims to?

  1. Help people recognize threats and practice safer behavior
  2. Replace all technical safeguards
  3. Guarantee nobody is deceived
  4. Disable company systems
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Help people recognize threats and practice safer behavior

Training reduces avoidable human errors.

Question 78. An acceptable-use policy typically defines?

  1. Only software license prices
  2. Permitted and prohibited use of organizational resources
  3. Only data encoding
  4. Only shift schedules
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Permitted and prohibited use of organizational resources

It communicates appropriate use of systems.

Question 79. Data classification is used to?

  1. Sort records alphabetically only
  2. Guarantee encryption always
  3. Categorize information by sensitivity and handling needs
  4. Remove all metadata
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Categorize information by sensitivity and handling needs

Classification guides protection decisions.

Question 80. Data minimization means?

  1. Saving every available personal detail
  2. Publishing all collected records
  3. Removing all access controls
  4. Collecting and retaining only data necessary for specified purposes
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Collecting and retaining only data necessary for specified purposes

Minimization reduces exposure and privacy risk.

Question 81. Privacy by design encourages?

  1. Considering personal-data protections throughout system design
  2. Waiting for a breach before considering privacy
  3. Keeping no documentation
  4. Collecting unlimited data
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Considering personal-data protections throughout system design

Privacy safeguards are incorporated early.

Question 82. Pseudonymization involves?

  1. Making data irreversibly anonymous in every situation
  2. Replacing direct identifiers with references while retaining potential reidentification through additional information
  3. Always encrypting with no keys
  4. Deleting every database table
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Replacing direct identifiers with references while retaining potential reidentification through additional information

Pseudonymized data can remain personal data.

Question 83. Anonymization aims to?

  1. Store all names in plaintext
  2. Add user accounts
  3. Remove realistic means of identifying individuals under an appropriate threat model
  4. Disable passwords
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Remove realistic means of identifying individuals under an appropriate threat model

Effective anonymization reduces reidentification risk.

Question 84. A retention policy determines?

  1. Only employee work hours
  2. Only network routing
  3. Only server cooling
  4. How long information should be kept before review or disposal
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. How long information should be kept before review or disposal

Retention rules limit unnecessary long-term storage.

Question 85. Secure disposal of storage aims to?

  1. Prevent recovery of sensitive data after equipment retirement
  2. Make files easier to read
  3. Increase disk capacity
  4. Guarantee higher processor speed
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Prevent recovery of sensitive data after equipment retirement

Sanitization methods depend on media and assurance needs.

Question 86. Risk treatment options commonly include?

  1. Only ignoring every risk
  2. Mitigating transferring avoiding or accepting risk
  3. Always deleting systems
  4. Only buying software
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Mitigating transferring avoiding or accepting risk

Organizations choose responses proportional to risk.

Question 87. A risk register records?

  1. Only administrator passwords
  2. Only purchase receipts
  3. Risks owners ratings and planned responses
  4. Only network cables
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Risks owners ratings and planned responses

The register supports tracking and review.

Question 88. A security audit evaluates?

  1. Only software popularity
  2. Only employee salaries
  3. Only disk capacity
  4. Conformance of controls and practices against criteria
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Conformance of controls and practices against criteria

Audits assess whether relevant requirements are met.

Question 89. A security control can be preventive when it?

  1. Reduces the likelihood of an undesirable event
  2. Only documents past incidents
  3. Only counts vulnerabilities
  4. Only restores backups after failure
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Reduces the likelihood of an undesirable event

Preventive controls stop or discourage harmful actions.

Question 90. A detective control primarily?

  1. Guarantees elimination of all vulnerabilities
  2. Identifies security events or violations
  3. Repairs damaged hardware
  4. Defines employee leave
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Identifies security events or violations

Detective controls alert to suspicious activity.

Question 91. An incident response plan defines?

  1. Only website color schemes
  2. Only annual leave quotas
  3. Procedures and responsibilities for handling security events
  4. Only server invoice dates
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Procedures and responsibilities for handling security events

Prepared response helps coordinate containment and recovery.

Question 92. Incident containment seeks to?

  1. Delete all evidence
  2. Publish credentials
  3. Only change a logo
  4. Limit ongoing damage and spread during a security event
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Limit ongoing damage and spread during a security event

Containment restricts attacker movement and incident impact.

Question 93. A forensic chain of custody documents?

  1. Who handled evidence when and how
  2. Only a project’s budget
  3. Only the first log entry
  4. Only software version numbers
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Who handled evidence when and how

Documented custody supports evidence integrity and accountability.

Question 94. A post-incident review aims to?

  1. Assign blame without investigation
  2. Improve controls and response using lessons learned
  3. Disable future monitoring
  4. Delete all incident details
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Improve controls and response using lessons learned

Learning prevents repeat incidents.

Question 95. Business continuity planning emphasizes?

  1. Only file encryption
  2. Only processor upgrades
  3. Maintaining critical operations through disruptions
  4. Only project branding
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Maintaining critical operations through disruptions

Continuity addresses people, processes and systems.

Question 96. An RTO is?

  1. An encryption key length
  2. A password retry limit
  3. A network port
  4. A target time to restore service after disruption
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. A target time to restore service after disruption

Recovery Time Objective defines acceptable restoration duration.

Question 97. An RPO is?

  1. A target limit on potential data loss measured in time
  2. Only a user role
  3. A certificate serial number
  4. A firewall protocol
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. A target limit on potential data loss measured in time

Recovery Point Objective defines acceptable loss of recent changes.

Question 98. A backup’s usefulness is best confirmed by?

  1. Only counting backup file names
  2. Regular restoration tests
  3. Assuming RAID is sufficient
  4. Only compressing archives
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Regular restoration tests

Restore tests verify recoverability.

Question 99. The 3-2-1 backup guideline recommends?

  1. Three passwords two administrators one server
  2. Three firewalls two routers one cable
  3. Three copies on two media types with one offsite
  4. Three logs two reports one meeting
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Three copies on two media types with one offsite

Separating copies reduces correlated failure risk.

Question 100. Why is RAID not a replacement for independent backups?

  1. RAID has no disks
  2. Backups always slow CPUs
  3. RAID cannot store files
  4. Drive redundancy does not address all deletion corruption or ransomware scenarios
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Drive redundancy does not address all deletion corruption or ransomware scenarios

Independent recovery copies address different loss scenarios.

Information Security MCQs — Set 3 (Questions 101–150)

Read each question and reveal the correct answer and explanation.

Question 101. Vulnerability management identifies?

  1. Weaknesses requiring evaluation and remediation
  2. Only user salaries
  3. Only DNS records
  4. Only monitor sizes
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Weaknesses requiring evaluation and remediation

Managing vulnerabilities includes discovery, prioritization, and correction.

Question 102. CVE identifies?

  1. A password hash
  2. A publicly tracked vulnerability
  3. An access role
  4. A firewall port
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. A publicly tracked vulnerability

CVE identifiers provide consistent references to vulnerabilities.

Question 103. CVSS is used to?

  1. Encrypt files
  2. Create user accounts
  3. Assess vulnerability severity
  4. Replace backups
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Assess vulnerability severity

CVSS scores technical severity characteristics.

Question 104. A security patch?

  1. Provides only a new logo
  2. Disables all authentication
  3. Creates a VPN tunnel
  4. Corrects known software weaknesses or defects
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Corrects known software weaknesses or defects

Patches address identified problems.

Question 105. A zero-day exploit concerns?

  1. A vulnerability exploited before a fix is available
  2. A bug fixed years ago
  3. A password expiring today
  4. Only a harmless test
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. A vulnerability exploited before a fix is available

Defenders may have no available vendor patch.

Question 106. Vulnerability scanning?

  1. Guarantees no future exploits
  2. Searches for potential known weaknesses
  3. Performs every manual test
  4. Replaces risk evaluation
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Searches for potential known weaknesses

Scanner findings require assessment.

Question 107. Penetration testing?

  1. Always patches all vulnerabilities
  2. Only counts files
  3. Uses authorized simulated attacks to evaluate security
  4. Only reads policies
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Uses authorized simulated attacks to evaluate security

Controlled exploitation can demonstrate impact.

Question 108. Coordinated vulnerability disclosure?

  1. Hides all vulnerabilities forever
  2. Publishes all exploits immediately
  3. Eliminates testing
  4. Allows remediation coordination before public detail release
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Allows remediation coordination before public detail release

Disclosure balances user safety and transparency.

Question 109. A detection false positive?

  1. Incorrectly flags benign behavior
  2. Misses a true intrusion
  3. Confirms malware exists
  4. Is an encryption failure
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Incorrectly flags benign behavior

False alerts cost investigation time.

Question 110. A detection false negative?

  1. Flags harmless traffic
  2. Misses a genuine threat
  3. Blocks a real attacker
  4. Records a successful restore
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Misses a genuine threat

Misses reduce defensive visibility.

Question 111. SQL injection attacks?

  1. Only overload Wi-Fi
  2. Change CPU speed
  3. Exploit untrusted data interpreted as query syntax
  4. Require physical disk theft
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Exploit untrusted data interpreted as query syntax

Unsafe query construction allows command alteration.

Question 112. Parameterized SQL helps?

  1. Publish database credentials
  2. Disable all checks
  3. Remove transactions
  4. Keep values separate from SQL statements
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Keep values separate from SQL statements

Parameter binding prevents values becoming query syntax.

Question 113. Cross-site scripting?

  1. Executes injected script in a victim browser context
  2. Creates a local VPN
  3. Only changes DNS zones
  4. Is a disk checksum
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Executes injected script in a victim browser context

Improper output handling can lead to script execution.

Question 114. Contextual output encoding?

  1. Replaces authentication
  2. Helps prevent XSS by treating data as data
  3. Guarantees no bugs
  4. Eliminates backups
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Helps prevent XSS by treating data as data

Encoding depends on HTML or JavaScript context.

Question 115. CSRF attempts?

  1. Guess a disk sector
  2. Encrypt a database file
  3. Trick a browser into unintended authenticated requests
  4. Allocate virtual memory
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Trick a browser into unintended authenticated requests

Ambient browser credentials can be misused.

Question 116. Anti-CSRF tokens?

  1. Replace login passwords
  2. Remove transport encryption
  3. Make all requests read-only
  4. Help validate the origin of state-changing requests
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Help validate the origin of state-changing requests

Unpredictable validated tokens mitigate forgery.

Question 117. IDOR vulnerabilities?

  1. Expose objects without proper authorization checking
  2. Require a damaged disk
  3. Occur only in UDP
  4. Are a sorting error
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Expose objects without proper authorization checking

Object IDs must not substitute for permissions.

Question 118. Broken access control?

  1. Always prevents breaches
  2. Allows actions beyond granted permissions
  3. Refers only to Wi-Fi
  4. Is a file compression type
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Allows actions beyond granted permissions

Server-side authorization must be enforced.

Question 119. Server-side validation matters because?

  1. Browsers never send bad input
  2. It replaces every test
  3. Clients can bypass local checks
  4. It guarantees performance
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Clients can bypass local checks

Server logic must not trust controlled requests.

Question 120. Path traversal vulnerabilities?

  1. Only change fonts
  2. Always need root credentials
  3. Are DNS errors
  4. Allow escaping intended directories through manipulated paths
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Allow escaping intended directories through manipulated paths

Untrusted path segments may access other files.

Question 121. Buffer overflow means?

  1. Writing beyond a buffer boundary
  2. Updating a firewall
  3. Logging an incident
  4. A secure password reset
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Writing beyond a buffer boundary

Memory corruption can follow out-of-bounds access.

Question 122. Use-after-free is?

  1. Allocating a new array
  2. Accessing released memory through a stale reference
  3. Correctly freeing a pointer
  4. A user registration step
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Accessing released memory through a stale reference

Dangling pointers are dangerous.

Question 123. ASLR helps?

  1. Encrypt data by itself
  2. Avoid all coding mistakes
  3. Randomize memory address locations
  4. Eliminate all malware
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Randomize memory address locations

Address randomization raises exploitation difficulty.

Question 124. Non-executable memory protection?

  1. Prevents data reads
  2. Guarantees no attack
  3. Replaces encryption
  4. Blocks code execution in designated data regions
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Blocks code execution in designated data regions

NX/DEP restricts execution permission.

Question 125. Stack canaries help?

  1. Detect certain overwrites of stack control data
  2. Protect against all SQL injection
  3. Assign IP addresses
  4. Hash user passwords
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Detect certain overwrites of stack control data

Corrupted sentinels can reveal stack smashing.

Question 126. Secure SDLC involves?

  1. Security after release only
  2. Security throughout development and maintenance
  3. Only choosing a framework
  4. Avoiding documentation
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Security throughout development and maintenance

Security belongs across the lifecycle.

Question 127. SAST examines?

  1. Only a running website externally
  2. Only disk performance
  3. Code or binaries without ordinary execution
  4. Only network signals
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Code or binaries without ordinary execution

Static security tools inspect artifacts.

Question 128. DAST examines?

  1. Only source text
  2. Only package licenses
  3. Only UML diagrams
  4. Application behavior during execution
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Application behavior during execution

Dynamic testing probes a running application.

Question 129. Software composition analysis?

  1. Examines dependency components and associated risks
  2. Only measures memory
  3. Counts passwords
  4. Changes source indentation
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Examines dependency components and associated risks

Third-party library risks require monitoring.

Question 130. An SBOM records?

  1. Only web page colors
  2. Software components and dependencies
  3. Only network ports
  4. Only salaries
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Software components and dependencies

Bills of materials support supply-chain transparency.

Question 131. Secure defaults mean?

  1. All privileges enabled
  2. All ports exposed
  3. Safe initial settings before customization
  4. Logging disabled
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Safe initial settings before customization

Default settings should minimize exposure.

Question 132. Disabling unused services?

  1. Makes all systems error-free
  2. Guarantees backups
  3. Always disables networking
  4. Reduces unnecessary attack surface
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Reduces unnecessary attack surface

Fewer reachable services mean fewer entry points.

Question 133. System hardening?

  1. Applies settings that reduce attack opportunities
  2. Enables every remote service
  3. Removes audit logs
  4. Shares credentials
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Applies settings that reduce attack opportunities

Hardening enforces secure configurations.

Question 134. Application allowlisting?

  1. Allows all downloads
  2. Restricts execution to approved software
  3. Removes permissions
  4. Forbids security patches
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Restricts execution to approved software

Approved lists constrain executable programs.

Question 135. Code signing?

  1. Encrypts every user document
  2. Proves software contains no defects
  3. Supports verification of software origin and integrity
  4. Replaces backups
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Supports verification of software origin and integrity

Digital signatures bind artifacts to trusted keys.

Question 136. SIEM systems?

  1. Only encrypt disks
  2. Only send email
  3. Allocate IP addresses
  4. Collect and correlate security event data
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Collect and correlate security event data

SIEM tools assist monitoring and analysis.

Question 137. SOAR platforms?

  1. Automate and coordinate response workflows
  2. Generate symmetric keys only
  3. Design user interfaces
  4. Replace all endpoint security
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Automate and coordinate response workflows

Orchestration supports repeatable incident tasks.

Question 138. Threat intelligence provides?

  1. Only employee records
  2. Information on relevant adversaries and their methods
  3. Only device colors
  4. An automatic guarantee against breaches
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Information on relevant adversaries and their methods

Threat context aids defense.

Question 139. Indicator of compromise means?

  1. A known safe patch
  2. Only a hardware model
  3. Evidence associated with possible malicious activity
  4. A software license
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Evidence associated with possible malicious activity

Hashes and unusual domains may serve as indicators.

Question 140. Indicator of attack focuses on?

  1. Only known malware file names
  2. Only disk volume labels
  3. Only user preferences
  4. Behaviors revealing attack techniques
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Behaviors revealing attack techniques

Behavioral signs can reveal unfolding attacks.

Question 141. A security event is?

  1. An observable occurrence relevant to security
  2. Always a confirmed breach
  3. Only a failed login
  4. Only a backup
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. An observable occurrence relevant to security

Events require context to assess.

Question 142. A security incident is?

  1. Every routine update
  2. An event threatening security or violating policy
  3. Every normal login
  4. Every disk read
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. An event threatening security or violating policy

Incidents require appropriate response.

Question 143. Incident triage means?

  1. Always deleting evidence
  2. Only disabling servers
  3. Prioritizing cases by urgency and impact
  4. Buying more storage
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Prioritizing cases by urgency and impact

Triage decides response priorities.

Question 144. Chain of custody records?

  1. Only network throughput
  2. Only project milestones
  3. Only compiler warnings
  4. Evidence handling and transfers
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Evidence handling and transfers

Documented handling supports forensic trust.

Question 145. Clock synchronization aids?

  1. Correlation of logs across systems
  2. Automatic encryption
  3. Password generation
  4. Disk compression
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Correlation of logs across systems

Aligned timestamps help reconstruct incidents.

Question 146. A security playbook is?

  1. A type of hash algorithm
  2. Documented steps for recurring response scenarios
  3. Only a payroll report
  4. An electrical standard
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Documented steps for recurring response scenarios

Playbooks help analysts respond consistently.

Question 147. Containment in incident response?

  1. Means deleting all logs
  2. Only increases bandwidth
  3. Limits damage and spread
  4. Automatically solves every vulnerability
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Limits damage and spread

Isolation can restrict an active compromise.

Question 148. Eradication in incident response?

  1. Only restores website colors
  2. Disables backups
  3. Means sending marketing emails
  4. Removes identified attacker footholds or malicious artifacts
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Removes identified attacker footholds or malicious artifacts

Root causes and persistence mechanisms must be addressed.

Question 149. Recovery during an incident?

  1. Restores trusted services to operation
  2. Means ignoring monitoring
  3. Always destroys evidence
  4. Requires removing all users
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Restores trusted services to operation

Recovery verifies systems can function safely.

Question 150. Post-incident review?

  1. Only assigns individual blame
  2. Identifies lessons and preventive improvements
  3. Deletes the audit trail
  4. Disables future detection
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Identifies lessons and preventive improvements

Learning helps strengthen controls.

Information Security MCQs — Set 4 (Questions 151–200)

Read each question and reveal the correct answer with explanation.

Question 151. Data loss prevention tools aim to?

  1. Replace all encryption
  2. Increase disk size
  3. Detect or restrict unauthorized sensitive-data movement
  4. Assign IP addresses
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Detect or restrict unauthorized sensitive-data movement

DLP applies policies to sensitive information flows.

Question 152. A data breach means?

  1. Any routine server restart
  2. Only a completed backup
  3. An ordinary login
  4. Unauthorized access or disclosure of protected information
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Unauthorized access or disclosure of protected information

Breaches compromise protected information.

Question 153. Data classification labels?

  1. Guide sensitivity-based information handling
  2. Automatically remove all risks
  3. Replace all permissions
  4. Determine CPU speed
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Guide sensitivity-based information handling

Labels help choose appropriate controls.

Question 154. A data owner is typically responsible for?

  1. Writing every program personally
  2. Defining acceptable use and protection requirements for information
  3. Repairing routers
  4. Only cleaning disk drives
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Defining acceptable use and protection requirements for information

Ownership establishes accountability for data.

Question 155. A data custodian commonly?

  1. Always defines business policy alone
  2. Owns every application user
  3. Operates safeguards and systems on behalf of information owners
  4. Cannot access backup processes
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Operates safeguards and systems on behalf of information owners

Custodians implement operational protection.

Question 156. Privacy impact assessment evaluates?

  1. Only network throughput
  2. Only software size
  3. Only source-code quality
  4. Risks to individuals from processing personal information
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Risks to individuals from processing personal information

PIAs identify privacy harms and mitigations.

Question 157. Purpose limitation requires?

  1. Using collected data for specified legitimate purposes
  2. Collecting all possible data
  3. Publishing every database table
  4. Keeping every record forever
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Using collected data for specified legitimate purposes

Processing should respect communicated purposes.

Question 158. Data minimization reduces risk by?

  1. Storing all identifiers
  2. Limiting personal information to what is necessary
  3. Making data public
  4. Disabling access control
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Limiting personal information to what is necessary

Less unnecessary data means less exposure.

Question 159. Pseudonymized records?

  1. Are always irreversibly anonymous
  2. Contain no information
  3. May still be linked to people with additional information
  4. Require no security controls
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. May still be linked to people with additional information

Pseudonyms can often be reconnected to identities.

Question 160. Secure deletion seeks to?

  1. Only move files to recycle bin
  2. Increase disk space without deleting
  3. Create extra backups
  4. Make removed data unrecoverable under the stated threat model
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Make removed data unrecoverable under the stated threat model

Sanitization must account for storage technology.

Question 161. Risk appetite is?

  1. The level of risk an organization is willing to accept
  2. The total number of attacks
  3. Only a legal fine
  4. The encryption key length
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. The level of risk an organization is willing to accept

Appetite guides risk decisions.

Question 162. Residual risk remains?

  1. Before identifying any threat
  2. After selected controls and treatments are applied
  3. Only when no asset exists
  4. Only when backups fail
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. After selected controls and treatments are applied

Controls may reduce but seldom eliminate all risk.

Question 163. Risk avoidance involves?

  1. Always buying insurance
  2. Only adding monitoring
  3. Stopping an activity that creates unacceptable risk
  4. Ignoring vulnerabilities
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Stopping an activity that creates unacceptable risk

Avoidance removes the risky activity or exposure.

Question 164. Risk transfer can involve?

  1. Erasing all risk
  2. Disabling authentication
  3. Hiding audit logs
  4. Shifting some financial consequences through insurance or contracts
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Shifting some financial consequences through insurance or contracts

Transfer cannot remove all operational responsibility.

Question 165. A compensating control?

  1. Provides alternative protection when a primary control is not feasible
  2. Always removes the requirement
  3. Is a malicious program
  4. Is only a backup file
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Provides alternative protection when a primary control is not feasible

Alternatives may achieve comparable security objectives.

Question 166. A security standard provides?

  1. Only an encryption password
  2. Defined requirements or guidance for consistent security practices
  3. Only a project logo
  4. Only a DNS record
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Defined requirements or guidance for consistent security practices

Standards promote repeatable expectations.

Question 167. ISO/IEC 27001 relates to?

  1. Only Ethernet wiring
  2. Only web font design
  3. Information security management systems
  4. Only database sorting
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Information security management systems

The standard defines requirements for an ISMS.

Question 168. An ISMS is?

  1. Only an intrusion-detection appliance
  2. A specific hash function
  3. An operating-system process
  4. A structured system for managing information-security risks
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. A structured system for managing information-security risks

An ISMS integrates policy, risk, controls and improvement.

Question 169. Security governance addresses?

  1. Direction accountability and oversight for security
  2. Only configuring a switch
  3. Only writing scripts
  4. Only scanning a port
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Direction accountability and oversight for security

Governance aligns protection with organizational goals.

Question 170. Segregation of duties reduces risk by?

  1. Giving one user all critical privileges
  2. Dividing sensitive responsibilities among separate roles
  3. Removing authorization
  4. Sharing all passwords
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Dividing sensitive responsibilities among separate roles

Separation limits opportunities for misuse and error.

Question 171. A business impact analysis identifies?

  1. Only firewall rule counts
  2. Only password age
  3. Critical services and consequences of disruption
  4. Only server color
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Critical services and consequences of disruption

BIA supports continuity priorities.

Question 172. A recovery point objective measures?

  1. Expected hours for a Sprint
  2. Maximum password guesses
  3. Current CPU utilization
  4. Acceptable potential data loss measured in time
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Acceptable potential data loss measured in time

RPO specifies how far back restored data may be.

Question 173. A recovery time objective measures?

  1. Target time to restore operations
  2. Maximum disk age
  3. Time to compute a hash
  4. Time between password changes
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Target time to restore operations

RTO sets a service restoration target.

Question 174. Geographically separate backups help?

  1. Guarantee no restoration errors
  2. Reduce exposure to a single-site disaster
  3. Replace all incident response
  4. Disable ransomware
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Reduce exposure to a single-site disaster

Offsite storage reduces correlated loss.

Question 175. Immutable backups are designed to?

  1. Change automatically with every user edit
  2. Remain publicly writable
  3. Resist unauthorized modification or deletion during a retention period
  4. Require no testing
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Resist unauthorized modification or deletion during a retention period

Immutability improves recovery resilience.

Question 176. A restore test verifies?

  1. Only the backup filename
  2. Only cloud pricing
  3. Only disk labels
  4. Whether recoverable data and procedures work
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Whether recoverable data and procedures work

Successful backup creation does not prove restorability.

Question 177. A disaster recovery exercise helps?

  1. Evaluate preparedness and recovery procedures
  2. Guarantee future zero downtime
  3. Replace every backup
  4. Eliminate business dependencies
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Evaluate preparedness and recovery procedures

Exercises reveal gaps before real incidents.

Question 178. A failover mechanism?

  1. Deletes all affected data
  2. Moves service to an alternative component on failure
  3. Always eliminates latency
  4. Only updates website colors
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Moves service to an alternative component on failure

Redundant systems can continue service.

Question 179. An availability zone separation strategy?

  1. Prevents every cyberattack
  2. Always guarantees zero data loss
  3. Reduces dependence on a single facility failure
  4. Replaces access control
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Reduces dependence on a single facility failure

Independent infrastructure can improve resilience.

Question 180. A single point of failure is?

  1. Any redundant component
  2. Every logged event
  3. Only a user password
  4. A component whose failure can interrupt the whole service
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. A component whose failure can interrupt the whole service

Removing single points improves availability.

Question 181. A hardware security module is used for?

  1. Protecting cryptographic keys and performing controlled cryptographic operations
  2. Only hosting web pages
  3. Running network routing protocols
  4. Replacing all employee identities
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Protecting cryptographic keys and performing controlled cryptographic operations

HSMs provide tamper-resistant key services.

Question 182. Key escrow means?

  1. Publishing keys openly
  2. A trusted arrangement for retaining key recovery capability
  3. Never rotating keys
  4. Storing passwords without hashing
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. A trusted arrangement for retaining key recovery capability

Escrow balances recovery needs with access risk.

Question 183. Perfect forward secrecy aims to?

  1. Guarantee all users remain anonymous
  2. Prevent every endpoint compromise
  3. Protect past session keys if a long-term private key is later compromised
  4. Make keys unnecessary
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Protect past session keys if a long-term private key is later compromised

Ephemeral key exchange can protect previously recorded sessions.

Question 184. Key derivation functions are used to?

  1. Reverse secure hashes automatically
  2. Assign router addresses
  3. Eliminate encryption
  4. Derive cryptographic key material from input secrets
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Derive cryptographic key material from input secrets

KDFs transform secrets into suitable cryptographic keys.

Question 185. Argon2id is designed for?

  1. Password hashing with tunable computational and memory costs
  2. IP routing
  3. File compression
  4. Digital signature verification alone
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Password hashing with tunable computational and memory costs

Memory-hard password hashing slows bulk guessing.

Question 186. What is a timing side channel?

  1. An encrypted backup
  2. Information leakage from differences in operation duration
  3. A network routing table
  4. A vulnerability identifier
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Information leakage from differences in operation duration

Attackers may infer secrets from timing variations.

Question 187. Constant-time cryptographic comparison helps?

  1. Make every program run in one CPU cycle
  2. Replace authorization
  3. Reduce timing differences dependent on secret values
  4. Prevent all phishing
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Reduce timing differences dependent on secret values

Secret-dependent branches can leak information.

Question 188. A replay-prevention mechanism commonly uses?

  1. Static shared messages reused indefinitely
  2. Publicly stored private keys
  3. Only longer hostnames
  4. Nonces timestamps or sequence numbers with validation
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Nonces timestamps or sequence numbers with validation

Freshness checks help reject previously valid messages.

Question 189. Certificate revocation communicates?

  1. That a previously issued certificate should no longer be trusted
  2. That a hostname has changed necessarily
  3. That a firewall was restarted
  4. That a password was correctly typed
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. That a previously issued certificate should no longer be trusted

Revocation status can affect certificate validity.

Question 190. OCSP provides?

  1. A storage compression algorithm
  2. Online certificate-status information
  3. A network switching loop protocol
  4. A password generation tool
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Online certificate-status information

OCSP queries certificate status from responders.

Question 191. A security token should be protected because?

  1. Tokens never expire
  2. Tokens cannot be stolen
  3. Possession may grant access under its authorization scope
  4. Tokens are always public metadata
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Possession may grant access under its authorization scope

Bearer tokens can convey account permissions.

Question 192. Token expiration limits?

  1. Every replay attack automatically
  2. All account compromise
  3. The number of databases
  4. How long a credential remains usable without renewal
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. How long a credential remains usable without renewal

Short lifetimes reduce some credential exposure.

Question 193. Session fixation attacks exploit?

  1. A victim using a session identifier chosen or controlled by an attacker
  2. Only weak encryption at rest
  3. A corrupted SSD
  4. IP fragmentation
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. A victim using a session identifier chosen or controlled by an attacker

Regenerating session identifiers during authentication helps mitigate fixation.

Question 194. Secure cookie flag does what?

  1. Prevents all JavaScript from reading the cookie
  2. Restricts sending that cookie to secure HTTPS requests
  3. Automatically encrypts cookie values at rest
  4. Disables every third-party cookie
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Restricts sending that cookie to secure HTTPS requests

The Secure attribute limits transport over insecure connections.

Question 195. HttpOnly cookie flag helps?

  1. Guarantee CSRF protection alone
  2. Force TLS for every request
  3. Prevent JavaScript access to the cookie via ordinary document APIs
  4. Make a session never expire
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Correct answer: C. Prevent JavaScript access to the cookie via ordinary document APIs

HttpOnly reduces direct theft through injected scripts.

Question 196. SameSite cookie attribute helps?

  1. Encrypt HTTP headers
  2. Replace all authentication
  3. Guarantee no XSS
  4. Control when cookies accompany cross-site requests
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Control when cookies accompany cross-site requests

SameSite can mitigate some cross-site request attacks.

Question 197. Content Security Policy is mainly used to?

  1. Restrict allowable content and script sources in browsers
  2. Guarantee database integrity
  3. Assign private IP addresses
  4. Create user accounts
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Correct answer: A. Restrict allowable content and script sources in browsers

CSP limits execution and resource-loading pathways.

Question 198. HTTP Strict Transport Security tells browsers to?

  1. Disable certificate validation
  2. Use HTTPS for a hostname under its policy
  3. Store all passwords
  4. Allow unencrypted cookies
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Correct answer: B. Use HTTPS for a hostname under its policy

HSTS helps resist downgrade to HTTP.

Question 199. Security headers are valuable because?

  1. They replace server-side authorization
  2. They eliminate all defects
  3. They communicate browser-enforced protections and policies
  4. They make TLS optional
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Correct answer: C. They communicate browser-enforced protections and policies

Headers can reduce some web attack opportunities.

Question 200. A secure incident closure should include?

  1. Deleting every log
  2. Never informing stakeholders
  3. Only changing the incident title
  4. Documented recovery verification and lessons learned
Show correct answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Documented recovery verification and lessons learned

Closure confirms response outcomes and improvements.

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